I’m studying modular representation theory, and I got really stuck with the seemingly innocent statement.
Consider $\mathrm{GL}_{2}(\mathbb{F}_{p})$ and its center $Z$, which is just a set of all scalar matrices. Now let $\pi: \mathrm{GL}_{2}(\mathbb{F}_{p}) \to \mathrm{GL}(V) $ be an irreducible representation over $\mathbb{F}_p$. Show that any $z\in Z$ is also a scalar operator in representation ($\pi(z) = \alpha\cdot \mathsf{Id}_{V}$ for some $\alpha\in\mathbb{F}_p$).
And for algebraically closed field this is a one liner, as by commutative nature of $z$ we know that $\pi(z)$ is an endmorphism of $(\pi,V)$, for which Schur’s Lemma states exactly that it is scalar.
However this doesn’t work for $\mathbb{F}_p$, as not all endimorohisms of $V$ have eigenvalues. We can generalize Schur’s Lemma and say that if we have a finite group $G$ and it’s irreducible representation $(\pi,V)$, then we know that $\mathrm{End}_{\mathbb{F}_p[G]}(V)$ is a division ring. Since we’re over a finite field, $\mathrm{End}_{\mathbb{F}_p[G]}(V)$ is also a field, but I am not sure that it is exactly $\mathbb{F}_p$, why couldn’t it be a field $\mathbb{F}_{p^n}$?
And I’m also interested what is the best Schur’s Lemma adaptation for a finite field case.