I read there that the fact about equivalence of $A$ and $A^2$ for any infinite set $A$ and the axiom of choice are equivalent. But what if we prove it only for sets that have cardinality of $\aleph_n, n \in \mathbb{N}\cup\lbrace 0 \rbrace$.
Let's prove it with mathematical induction.
- For $n = 0$ it's evident, we can use the same proof that was used for the countability of $\mathbb{Q}$.
- Suppose that it's true for some $n \in \mathbb{N}$. Let's prove it for $n + 1$. Consider a set $A$ with cardinality of $\aleph_{n + 1}$. Then there exists a set $B$ with cardinality of $\aleph_n$ which powerset is equivalent to $A$: $A \sim 2^B$. Then every element of $A$ corresponds to a subset of $B$. We can construct an injection between $(2^B)^2$ and $2^B$. First, we construct an injection between $(2^B)^2$ and $2^{B^2}$: $f(S_1, S_2) = S_1 \times S_2$. Further we can construct an injection between $2^{B^2}$ and $2^B$ by using, as we assume, existing injection between $B^2$ and $B$. Also we can easily can construct an injection between $2^B$ and $(2^B)^2$: $f(S) = (S, S)$. Then by the Cantor-Bernstein theorem we have that $A \sim 2^B \sim (2^B)^2 \sim A^2$
As far as I'm concerned, that proof doesn't use the axiom of choice. But it doesn't work for such cardinals as $\aleph_\omega, \aleph_{\omega + 1}$ and so on, because there we should use transfinite induction which uses the axiom of choice. Did I get it right?