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A space $X$ is simply connected if it is path connected and every loop is homotopic to a constant loop.

A space $X$ is simply connected if it is path connected and has trivial fundamental group.

Thinking about these definitions, the second one seems a priori more strong, since going to the definition of fundamental group, it's essentially saying

A space $X$ is simply connected if it is path connected and every loop is homotopic relative $\{0,1\}$ to a constant loop.

I'd like to know if these definitions are indeed equal because I went bugging for a moment there.

Attempt of proof: let $f:[0,1]\to X$ be a loop (i.e. $f(0)=f(1)$). Suppose $F$ is a homotopy that takes $F_0=f$ to $F_1=c$ a constant loop. Let $$G_s(t)=\begin{cases} F_{3t}(0)\text{ if }0\leq t\leq \frac s 3\\ F_s(\frac {3t-s}{3-2s}) \text{ if }\frac s 3\leq t\leq 1-\frac s 3\\ F_{3(1-t)}(0) \text{ if }1-\frac s 3\leq t\leq 1 \end{cases}.$$

This way $G_0=f$ and $G_1$ goes at $c$, stays there some time and comes back which is of course homotopic to staying at $f(0)$ the whole time. Moreover $G_s(0)$ is always equal to $f(0)$.

Would this work? Otherwise please give a hint!

Notes: to me,

  • a loop is either a map from $S^1$ or a map from $[0,1]$ that agrees at $0$ and $1$. Depending on the situation I'll use one or the other definition.
  • In the first case, a basepoint fixing homotopy between loops $f$ and $g$ is a homotopy $F$ taking $F_0=f$ to $F_1=g$ such that $F_s(\mathbf{z})$ remains constant across all $s\in [0,1]$, for some $\mathbf{z}\in S^1$.
  • In the second case, a homotopy of loops between $f$ and $g$ is a homotopy $F$ such that $F_0=f$; $F_1=g$ and $F_s(0)=F_s(1)$ for all $s\in [0,1]$. $F$ is furthermore called endpoint-fixing if its a homotopy relative to $\{0,1\}$ (so it's a stronger statement obviously).

For instance, in my proof, I preferred to write the loops as closed paths. In other contexts, I'll say they're maps from the circle. If this is not standard, please do tell me.

hey
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    Homotopies of paths/loops are always implicitly relative to fixed endpoints... – Naïm Camille Favier Jun 03 '24 at 18:51
  • Instead of messing around with explicit homotopies, it might be better to try proving that any map $f\colon X \to Y$ is (freely) nullhomotopic when $X$ is contractible, to dispell any doubt that the notion of "free homotopy of paths" is not very useful for defining invariants, whence the convention Naïm mentions is in place. – Ben Steffan Jun 03 '24 at 19:14
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    These properties depend on the definitions that precede them. A loop in $X$ could be taken as a continuous mapping from $S^1$ to $X$ (that does not need to preserve base points), while the fundamental group can be defined as base point-preserving maps $(S^1, ) \to (X, )$. If you model loops as functions $[0, 1]\to X$, then the former lets $f(0)$ and $f(1)$ vary along a homotopy as long as they remain equal, while the latter requires them to stay fixed. To show that you get equivalent definitions of simple connectedness does require a little bit of work. – Rob Arthan Jun 03 '24 at 19:18
  • @RobArthan that's what I meant. – hey Jun 03 '24 at 19:38
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    @NaïmFavier that's not what I've learned. Homotopy is defined for functions in general in the first place. – hey Jun 03 '24 at 19:39
  • @aleph2 Yes. This does not contradict the fact that paths/loops are a specific kind of functions whose endpoints are specified, and thus the most natural notion of homotopy between paths/loops are those that keep the endpoints fixed. – Naïm Camille Favier Jun 03 '24 at 20:13
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    @NaimFavier: the notion of a free loop is standard in homotopy theory and it is a well-known and very useful fact that homotopy classes of free loops correspond to conjugacy classes in the fundamental group (which is defined using based loops). Also the notion of "endpoint" is not very intuitive for loops: what are the endpoints of an elastic band? As I said, this depends on previous definitions in the OP's text, but the most natural definitions do leave the issue that the OP highlights as a small detail to resolve. – Rob Arthan Jun 03 '24 at 20:32
  • @NaïmFavier to me a loop is just a function $S^1\to X$. – hey Jun 03 '24 at 20:46
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    @aleph2 "to me a loop is just a function $S^1→X$". Then you should clarify this by an edit of your question, not in a comment. But in that case, why do you write "Attempt of proof: let $f:[0,1]\to X$ be a loop (i.e. $f(0)=f(1)$)." This suggests that you regard a loop as a closed path. Make clear what you really mean, otherwise the question does not make sense. – Kritiker der Elche Jun 04 '24 at 08:32
  • You are right that I should have been clearer. I now understand your objections. I've added some clarifications. – hey Jun 04 '24 at 11:54

3 Answers3

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You did not give the source of the definition

A space $X$ is simply connected if it is path connected and every loop is homotopic to a constant loop.

The crucial part is $$\text{every loop is homotopic to a constant loop} \tag{1}$$ The interpretation of $(1)$ should have been clarified in the unknown source.

Certainly we must not understand it in the sense that for each loop $f : [0,1] \to X$ there exists a homotopy $H : [0,1] \times [0,1] \to X$ such that $H(t, 0) = f(t)$ and $H(t,1) = c$ without any requirements concerning the endpoints. If we allow such free homotopies, then each path connected space would be simply connected which does not make sense. In fact, the homotopy $H(t,s) = f((1-s)t)$ deforms $f$ into the constant loop with value $f(0)$.

The standard interpretation of $(1)$ is that the homotopy $H: F \simeq c$ is a homotopy of paths, i.e. a homotopy rel. $\{0,1\}$.

For a more detailed discussion see Characterizing simply connected spaces.

Paul Frost
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  • I don't think the claim every loop is freely null-homotopic is true, if one uses the definition of a loop as a continuous map from $\Bbb S^1$, or is it? But still, freely homotopic could a priori mean something different than pointed homotopic. – Jonas Linssen Jun 03 '24 at 23:20
  • @JonasLinssen If you understand a loop as a map $f : S^1 \to X$, then you are right: Not every loop is freely nullhomotopic. But in the present question a loop is a closed path, and thus it is always freely nullhomotopic. – Paul Frost Jun 03 '24 at 23:28
  • Right. There have been self-contradictory statements of OP about what a loop is. For some reason I forgot about the question body (loop is path) as soon as I read OP‘s last comment (loop is image of $\Bbb S^1$) – Jonas Linssen Jun 04 '24 at 06:11
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$\newcommand\pinch{\bigcirc\!-}$You are right to be suspicious, but the notions are indeed equivalent.

Let me recall the definitions. A homotopy between continuous maps $f,g:X\rightarrow Y$ is a continuous map $h:[0,1]\times X\rightarrow Y$ with $h(0,x) = f(x)$ and $h(1,x) = g(x)$ for all $x\in X$. If the spaces $X$ and $Y$ are pointed by some $x_0\in X$ and $y_0\in Y$, and if the maps $f,g$ are basepoint-preserving, such a homotopy is a basepoint preserving homotopy, if $h(s,x_0) = y_0$ for all $s\in [0,1]$.

The fundamental group of $X$ at $x_0$ is the set $\pi_1(X,x_0) = [(\Bbb S^1,1),(X,x_0)]_\ast$ of basepoint preserving loops modulo basepoint preserving homotopy.

Claim 1: If $X$ is path-connected, this doesn't depend on $x_0$.

Indeed, let $x_1\in X$ be another basepoint and $\gamma:x_0\rightarrow x_1$ a path. Consider the quotient $Q := \Bbb S^1/(\Re(z)\geq 0) \cong \Bbb S^1 \cup [1,2]$, where $\Bbb S^1 = \{z\in\Bbb C\mid \vert z\vert = 1\}$. Let $\lambda$ be a loop pointed at $y_0$, ie a basepoint preserving map $\lambda:(\Bbb S^1,1)\rightarrow(X,x_0)$. Then going $\gamma$ then $\lambda$ and then $\gamma^{-1}$ defines a loop pointed at $x_0$, by means of a composite map $\Bbb S^1 \rightarrow Q \xrightarrow{\gamma^{-1}\ast\lambda\ast\gamma} X$. Doing the same with $\gamma^{-1}$ we can turn any loop pointed at $x_0$ into a loop pointed at $y_0$. This defines maps $\pi_1(X,x_1) \rightarrow \pi_1(X,x_0)$ and $\pi_1(X,x_1)\rightarrow\pi_1(X,x_0)$ and one may check that these are actual group-homomorphisms. Writing $\omega_0$ for the loop at $x_0$ given by going $\gamma$ and then $\gamma^{-1}$ we note that $[\omega_0] = [\mathbf{1_{x_0}}]\in\pi_1(X,x_0)$ and thus the composite $\pi_1(X,x_0)\rightarrow\pi_1(X,x_1)\rightarrow\pi_1(X,x_0)$ maps the class $[\lambda]$ of a loop $\lambda$ pointed at $x_0$ to the product of loops $[\omega_0]\ast[\lambda]\ast[\omega_0] = [\lambda]$. This (and the analogous observation for $\pi_1(X,x_1)$) shows that the groups are isomorphic.

Claim 2: The two notions of simply connected coincide.

By Claim 1 it suffices to show that every (unpointed) nullhomotopic loop $\lambda:\Bbb S^1 \rightarrow X$ can be made pointed null-homotopic, meaning $[\lambda]=\mathbf{1_{x_0}}\in\pi_1(X,x_0)$, where $x_0 = \lambda(1)$. So let $h:[0,1]\times\Bbb S^1\rightarrow X$ be a homotopy from $\lambda$ to $\mathbf{1}_{x_1}$ for $x_1 = h(1,1)$. Define $\eta:[0,1]\times[1,2]\rightarrow X,\eta(s,t) = h(s(2-t),1)$. Now consider the homotopy $H:[0,1]\times\Bbb S^1 \rightarrow [0,1]\times Q \cong [0,1]\times(\Bbb S^1 \cup [1,2]) \cong [0,1]\times\Bbb{S}^1 \cup [0,1]\times[1,2] \xrightarrow{h \cup \eta} X$. This map is continuous as composite of continous maps. Furthermore $H(s,1) = \eta(s,2) = h(0,1) = \lambda(1)$ for all $s$, $H(0,z)$ is a reparametrization of $\lambda$ and $H(1,z)$ is a basepoint preserving null-homotopic path at $x_0$. This shows that $[\lambda] = [\mathbf{1}_{x_0}] \in \pi_1(X,x_0)$ as claimed.

Jonas Linssen
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The homotopy class of a free loop in $X$ corresponds to a conjugacy class in $\pi_1(X)$, which will be trivial if and only if there are no nontrivial conjugacy classes. Therefore the definitions of simply-connectedness via free loops and based loops are equivalent.

Mikhail Katz
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