Apology for asking highly related but subtly different questions within a very short amount of time.
Let $X$ be a real Banach space, and $A\subset X$ be balanced, convex, and absorbing. Two facts are known.
If $A$ is closed, then it is a neighborhood of $0$.
If $A$ is not closed, then $A$ might have empty interior.
Question. Usually when a set has empty interior but its closure has nonempty interior, the routine thinking is that taking the closure fill in the holes. But in the context of this question, if $A$ is not closed, and contains some holes, these holes can be approached by points from within $A$ from more than 1 directions, and so should(?) lie on some line segment of two points in $A$, and due to convexity, these holes shouldn't be holes at all. So convexity should(?) prohibit $A$ from having holes. If that is true, then why would taking the closure makes $\overline{A}$ a neighborhood?? If $x_n\to 0$ lies completely outside of $A$, then after taking the closure the sequence should still lie outside of $\overline{A}$. No?
Nonetheless the two facts above are true. So there must be something wrong with this intuition. I suspect $A$ can have holes approaching $0$ which are not the convex combination of any points of $A$. But this seems very strange to me. I can't seem to find such an example online or in my textbooks (Rudin/Conway). Thanks in advance.
Anyway, I don't understand what you mean by a hole of a (convex) set.
– Jochen May 29 '24 at 10:35