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Is there a way to show that $5a(a+1)\over 3a+4$ $\notin \mathbb{N}$ for $a\in \mathbb{N}$ (except when $a=2$)?

The expression has a few different forms, but I don't see how to show this. Any hints are greatly appreciated.

J. W. Tanner
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ddswsd
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2 Answers2

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Yes, using polynomial division (multiplying by $9$ to maintain coefficients integers),

we see that $45a(a+1)=(3a+4)(3a-1)5+20,$

so if $3a+4$ divides $5a(a+1)$, then $3a+4$ divides $20$.

Can you take it from here?

J. W. Tanner
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  • This makes sense. Thank you. – ddswsd May 26 '24 at 22:48
  • @ddswsd special case of scaled Euclidean alg. in dupe, i.e. scaling 2nd gcd arg by $,c = \color{#0a0}{3\cdot 3},$ we get $$(n,5a(a!+!1)) = (n,5(\color{#0a0}{3a})(\color{#0a0}{3a}!+!3)) = (n,5(\color{#c00}{-4})(\color{#c00}{-4}!+!3))=(n,20)\qquad$$

    since $\bmod n!=!\color{#0a0}{3a}!+!\color{#c00}{4}!:\ \color{#0a0}{3a}\equiv \color{#c00}{-4}.\ $ [note $,(n,c)=1,$ by $,(n,3)=(4,3)=1$] $\ \ $

    – Bill Dubuque May 27 '24 at 21:59
  • Please strive not to post more (dupe) answers to dupes of FAQs. This is enforced site policy, see here. – Bill Dubuque May 27 '24 at 22:01
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$3a+4=3(a+1)+1$ and $a+1$ are prime to each other.

So if $\frac{5a(a+1)}{3a+4} \in \mathbb N$, then $2 > \frac{5a}{3a+4} \in \mathbb N$

Then the only option for $\frac{5a(a+1)}{3a+4} \in \mathbb N$ is that $\frac{5a}{3a+4} = 1$, which is $a=2$

J. W. Tanner
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MoonKnight
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