My initial thought is no, simply because it seems too easy if it is true.
The simplest example of a nontrivial irreducible polynomial I could think of was $f(x)=x^2+1$. Unfortunately, $f(x+1)$ is Eisenstein at $p=2$.
Then I considered $f(x)=x^2+4$, skipping $2$ and $3$ as those are Eisenstein, and I believe I have a proof.
If $f(ax+b)=a^2x^2+2abx+(b^2+4)$ is Eisenstein at $p$ (where $a,b \in \mathbb{Z}$), then $p\nmid a^2$ so $p\nmid a$ and thus (as $p \mid 2ab$), we must have $p \mid 2b$.
If $p=2$, then $b$ must be even as $2\mid (b^2+4)$. But then $b^2$ is divisble by $4$ so $2^2 \mid b^2+4$, which contradicts Eisenstein's criterion.
If $p$ is odd, then $p\mid b$, so clearly we have $p\mid b^2$. As $p\mid b^2+4$, we must have $p\mid 4$, which is a contradiction.
So no $a$ and $b$ exist.
My question is: is it sufficient to show that no integer $a$ and $b$ exist?