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Consider $\Omega\subset \mathbb{R}^N$ a bounded domain, which is radial. By definition, the space of radial functions in $H^1_0(\Omega)$ is $$ H^1_{0, rad}(\Omega) = \{u \in H^1_0(\Omega) : u = u \circ R, \forall R \in O(N)\}. $$ It is very common in papers the authors just sai that $H^1_{0,rad}(\Omega) = \overline{C^\infty_{0,rad}(\Omega)}^{H^1_0(\Omega)}$, without more comments, where $$ C^\infty_{0,rad}(\Omega) = \{u \in C^\infty_{0}(\Omega) : u \text{ is radial}\}. $$ I am trying to find a precise proof of this. If we replace $\Omega$ by $\mathbb{R}^N$ I know how to prove using standad molifications. The hard part for me in the case of a bounded domain it is to conclude that the molification of a function in $H^1_{0,rad}(\Omega)$ has its support in $\Omega$. Any help with this or just a reference with this fact will be appreciated.

ThiagoGM
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  • Is your domain radial too? Respectively, what would $u=u\circ R$ mean if $\Omega$ is not radial? – Severin Schraven May 19 '24 at 17:31
  • I just edited it. Yes, the domain is radial. – ThiagoGM May 19 '24 at 17:36
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    Ok, but can't you then just rewrite the entire thing as $u(x)=v(\vert x \vert)$ for almost every $x\in \Omega$ and $v\in H_0^1(0,R)$ where $\Omega=B(0,R)$? Then working on the level of the radial part should allow you to use the standard convolution argument. – Severin Schraven May 19 '24 at 17:43
  • Thank you @SeverinSchraven. But how to do this? I know in dimension one, $v$ is continuous in $[0,R]$. Is it enough to build a sequence $v_n \in C^\infty_0(0,R)$ such that $v_n \to v$ in $H^1_0(0, R)$ ? – ThiagoGM May 19 '24 at 17:49
  • I would pick $v_n$ as you wrote above and set $u_n(x)=v_n(\vert x \vert)$. Now we need to prove that $u_n$ converges to $u$ in $H^1$. It is easy to see that we have convergence in $L^2$ by passing to radial coordinates. I don't quite see how to deal with the derivative though. – Severin Schraven May 19 '24 at 17:53
  • Also, I should have picked $v\in H_0^1(-R,R)$, otherwise I will run into trouble around the origin. – Severin Schraven May 19 '24 at 17:57
  • The problem with $u_n(x) = v_n(|x|)$ is that $u_n$ is not smooth in the origem. I need $u_n$ to be in $C^\infty_{0,\text{rad}}(B)$. – ThiagoGM May 19 '24 at 18:03
  • In fact, I think we can just use the standard proof and pick our mollifier to be radially symmetric. In that case we get $$ u_n(x) = \int_{\mathbb{R}^n} \varphi_\delta(y) f(x-y) dy = \int_{\mathbb{R}^n} \varphi_\delta(y) f(R(R^{-1}x-R^{-1}y))dy = \int_{\mathbb{R}^n} \varphi_\delta(Rz) f(R(R^{-1}x-z)) dz. $$ – Severin Schraven May 19 '24 at 18:04
  • Because both $f$ and $\varphi_\delta$ are radial, this is equal to $u_n(R^{-1}x)$. – Severin Schraven May 19 '24 at 18:06
  • How to make sure $u_n \in C^\infty_0(B)$? – ThiagoGM May 19 '24 at 18:07
  • Well, use the usual proof. One first picks a cut-off $\chi$ such that $f=\chi u$ is supported away from the boundary. The mollifier then makes sure that $u_n$ is smooth. In particular, this shows that $f$ is in the closure. Then one works a bit more and shows that this implies that $u$ is in the closure. – Severin Schraven May 19 '24 at 18:10
  • Let me see if I understood it correctly. Given $f \in H^1_{0,\text{rad}}(B_R)$, we define $u_n = \varphi_\delta \ast f$. I understood $u_n$ is radial. I know $u_n \to f$ locally in $H^1(B_R)$, but the support of $u_n$ exceed $B_R$, because $\text{supp} (u_n) \subset \overline{B_R + B_\delta}$. So, your cut-off function solves this problem? I mean, it makes the support of the function to be in $B_R$? – ThiagoGM May 19 '24 at 18:25
  • Yes, this is the usual thing. You first need a cut-off in order to have some room to wiggle with the convolution. – Severin Schraven May 19 '24 at 18:34
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    So, you first pick a cut-off function $\chi_\varepsilon$ such that $\Vert u -\chi_\varepsilon u\Vert_{H^1}<\varepsilon$. Now we know that the support of $\chi_\varepsilon u$ is strictly inside of the ball and we can pick $\delta_\varepsilon>0$ such that the support of $\varphi_\delta (\chi_\varepsilon u)$ is contained in the ball for all $0<\delta\leq \delta_\varepsilon$. Now pick $0<\ell_\varepsilon<\delta_\varepsilon$ such that $\Vert \chi_\varepsilon u-\varphi_{\ell_\varepsilon}(\chi_\varepsilon u)\Vert_{H^1}\leq \varepsilon$. – Severin Schraven May 19 '24 at 18:39
  • @SeverinSchraven, thank you again. With your help I wrote an answer. Could you please help me with the Lemma 1? Also, if I made any mistake, please let me know. – ThiagoGM May 19 '24 at 20:17

3 Answers3

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In the other answer it is noted that one can redo the entire construction as in the non-radial case by choosing the mollifier and the cut-off function radially. Another approach is to directly utilize the fact that we already know the characterization of $H_0^1(\Omega)$.

Let $u\in H_{0,\mathrm{rad}}^1(\Omega)$. Then in particular we know that $u\in H_0^1(\Omega)$ and $u$ is radial. As $u\in H_0^1(\Omega)$ we know that there exists a sequence $(u_n)_{n\in \mathbb{N}} \subseteq C_c^\infty(\Omega)$ such that $\Vert u-u_n\Vert_{H^1(\Omega)} \rightarrow 0$. The issue here is of course that the $u_n$ need not be radial. Thus, we define $$ v_n(x) = \int_{O(N)} u_n(R x) dR $$ where $dR$ is the Haar measure on $O(N)$. One readily checks (change of variables and the fact that $dR$ is $O(N)$-invariant) that $v_n\in C_c^\infty(\Omega)$ is radial.

Next we are going to use the fact that $\Vert u_n - u\Vert_{H^1(\Omega)}\rightarrow 0$ to conclude $\Vert v_n-u\Vert_{H^1(\Omega)} \rightarrow 0$. First we going to compute some gradients. Namely, if $R\in O(N), g\in C^1(\Omega)$ and $x\in \Omega, v\in \mathbb{R}^N$, then we have $$ \langle \nabla (g\circ R)(x), v\rangle = D(g\circ R)(x)[v] = Df(Rx) [Rv] = \langle (\nabla g)(Rx), Rv \rangle = \langle R^{-1} (\nabla g)(Rx), v \rangle.$$ Hence, we have $$ \nabla (g\circ R)(x) = R^{-1} (\nabla g)(Rx). $$ With this at hand, we can do the estimates. Using Minkowski's integral inequality we get \begin{align*} \left( \int_\Omega \vert \nabla(v_n(x)-u(x)) \vert^2 dx \right)^{1/2} &= \left( \int_\Omega \vert \int_{O(N)} \nabla[(u_n\circ R)(x)-(u\circ R)(x)] dR \vert^2 dx \right)^{1/2} \\ &\leq \int_{O(N)} \left( \int_\Omega \vert \nabla [(u_n\circ R)(x)-(u\circ R)(x) \vert^2 dx \right)^{1/2} dR \\ &=\int_{O(N)} \left( \int_\Omega \vert R^{-1}[(\nabla u_n)(Rx)-(\nabla u)(Rx)] \vert^2 dx \right)^{1/2} dR \\ &=\int_{O(N)} \left( \int_\Omega \vert (\nabla u_n)(Rx)-(\nabla u)(Rx) \vert^2 dx \right)^{1/2} dR \\ &=\int_{O(N)} \left( \int_\Omega \vert (\nabla u_n)(y)-(\nabla u)(y) \vert^2 dy \right)^{1/2} dR \\ &= \Vert \nabla u_n - \nabla u\Vert_{L^2(\Omega)} \int_{O(N)} dR \\ &=\Vert \nabla u_n - \nabla u\Vert_{L^2(\Omega)}. \end{align*} Similar computation yields $\Vert v_n - u \Vert_{L^2(\Omega)}\leq \Vert u_n-u\Vert_{L^2(\Omega)}$. Hence, we get $$ \Vert v_n-u\Vert_{H^1(\Omega)} \leq \Vert u_n - u \Vert_{H^1(\Omega)} \rightarrow 0. $$ Hence, $u\in \overline{C_{0,\mathrm{rad}}^\infty(\Omega)}^{H_0^1(\Omega)}$.

  • Thank you! Do you know a reference where I can find the proof that $u(x) = \int_{O(N)} u(Rx) dR$ for all $x \in \Omega$? Is it true for any $u \in L^p(\Omega)$ ? – ThiagoGM May 20 '24 at 16:18
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    @LucasLinhares This is trivial as $u$ is radial, we have $u(x)=u(Rx)$ for $R\in O(N)$ by your definition. Thus, $$ \int_{O(N)} u(Rx) dR = u(x) \int_{O(N)} dR = u(x) $$ where I have used that $dR$ is a Haar measure (in particular a probability measure). – Severin Schraven May 20 '24 at 16:44
  • Do you know a good reference in which I can find the change of variables that you meant to prove that $v_n$ is radial? – ThiagoGM Nov 23 '24 at 11:54
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    @LucasLinhares I don't understand your question. All I am using is that the measure is $O(N)$-invariant, which is part of the definition of a Haar measure. If you are concerned about the existence, then you can check any book on Haar measures (note that $O(N)$ is a compact topological group). – Severin Schraven Nov 23 '24 at 12:57
  • If you want to show that $v_n(Sx)=v_n(x)$, then the change of variables is $\tilde{R}=RS$. – Severin Schraven Nov 23 '24 at 13:00
  • Or are you asking how to do a change of variables on general measure spaces? Then you might want to look here https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/152338/is-there-a-change-of-variables-formula-for-a-measure-theoretic-integral-that-doe – Severin Schraven Nov 23 '24 at 13:07
  • Sorry for not begin clear. My doubt is how to strictly make the chance of variables and use the general change of variables formula to show $v_n$ is radial. I will write my attempt and, please, let me know if I am doing it well: Let me denote by $\mu$ the Haar measure on $O(N)$. Let $T \in O(N)$. Then, $v_n(Tx) = \int_{O(N)} u(R Tx) d R.$ If we define $F: O(N) \to O(N)$ by $F(R) = R T^{-1}$, by the general change of variable formula we get $\int_{F(O(N))} u_n(R Tx) d R = \int_{O(N)} u_n( F(R) Tx) d(F^\ast \mu){R} = \int{O(N)} u_n( Rx) d(F^\ast \mu)_{R}$. Now I don't know what to do. – ThiagoGM Nov 23 '24 at 14:28
  • How to prove that $F^\ast \mu = \mu$ ? (Should I prove this ?) – ThiagoGM Nov 23 '24 at 14:31
  • My attempt to prove that $F^\ast \mu = \mu:$ If we denote by $\Sigma$ the Borel $\sigma$ algebra of $O(N)$, then the induced $\sigma$ algebra on the domain of $F$ should be $\tilde{\Sigma} = { A \subset G : F(A) \in \Sigma}$ and $(F^\ast \mu)(A) := \mu(F(A))$. But $\mu(F(A)) = \mu (A * T^{-1}) = \mu(A)$, where $*$ is the operation in the group $O(N)$. Is it correct? – ThiagoGM Nov 23 '24 at 14:49
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    By construction the Haar measure is invariant under $F$. That is the defining property of the Haar measure. – Severin Schraven Nov 23 '24 at 15:02
  • I am trying to give a similar answer for https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/5001991/dense-subspace-of-space-of-radial-in-directions-functions-in-h1-0-omega, using the power of Haar measure. Thank you – ThiagoGM Nov 23 '24 at 15:06
  • A last doubt still remains. To prove that $F^\ast \mu = \mu$, should I prove that they have the same domain, that is, $\tilde{\Sigma} = \Sigma?$ I don't know if this is the right way to go. – ThiagoGM Nov 23 '24 at 15:48
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    No. This is trivial as $F$ is a homeomorphism and therefore leaves the Borel sigma algebra unchanged. – Severin Schraven Nov 23 '24 at 15:51
  • It seems you don't understand what a Haar measure is, I suggest you read this https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Haar_measure – Severin Schraven Nov 23 '24 at 15:54
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Let me make your original approach rigorous. Wlog I'll assume that $\Omega=B(0,1)\subseteq \mathbb{R}^n$ (rescaling everything we can always reduce to this case).

Let $u\in H_{0,\mathrm{rad}}^1(\Omega)$. Pick $\varphi\in C_c^\infty(\mathbb{R})$ even such that $\varphi\geq 0,$ $\varphi(0)=1$ and $\varphi^{(k)}(0)=0$ for all $k\in \mathbb{N}_{\geq 1}$ and $\varphi(r)=0$ for $\vert r \vert \geq 1/2$. Define for $0<\varepsilon<1$ $$ \varphi_\varepsilon(r) = \begin{cases} 1,& -1+\varepsilon\leq r \leq 1-\varepsilon,\\ \varphi((r-(1-\varepsilon))/\varepsilon),& r>1-\varepsilon,\\ \varphi((r-(-1+\varepsilon))/\varepsilon),& r<-1+\varepsilon. \end{cases}$$ Finally, we define $$ \chi_\varepsilon(x)=\varphi_\varepsilon(\vert x \vert). $$ Then we have that $\chi_\varepsilon\in C_c^\infty(\mathbb{R}^n)$ is radial with support in $B(0,1-\varepsilon/2)$.

Cutting off the support: We define $v_\varepsilon = \chi_\varepsilon u$. As $\chi_\varepsilon$ is smooth, we get $v_\varepsilon \in H_0^1(\Omega)$. We want to prove that $\lim_{\varepsilon \rightarrow 0^+} \Vert v_\varepsilon -u \Vert_{H^1(\Omega)} =0$. Using $\lim_{\varepsilon \rightarrow 0^+} \chi_\varepsilon =1$ and dominated convergence yields $\Vert v_\varepsilon - u \Vert_{L^2(\Omega)}=0$. Next we need to deal with the derivative. We have \begin{align*} \Vert \nabla (v_\varepsilon -u ) \Vert_{L^2(\Omega)} \leq \Vert (1-\chi_\varepsilon) \nabla u \Vert_{L^2(\Omega)} + \Vert (\nabla \chi_\varepsilon) u \Vert_{L^2(\Omega)}. \end{align*} The first term on the RHS goes to zero again by dominated convergence. For the second term we need to work a bit harder. First of all we note that by construction we have $$ \vert \nabla \chi_\varepsilon(x) \vert \leq \varepsilon^{-1} \left(\sup_{\vert r \vert \leq 1/2} \vert \varphi'(r) \vert\right) 1_{\Omega_\varepsilon}(x) $$ where $\Omega_\varepsilon = B(0,1)\setminus B(0,1-\varepsilon)$.

As $u\in H_0^1(\Omega)$ there exists a sequence $(g_n)_{n\in \mathbb{N}}\subseteq C_c^\infty(\Omega)$ such that $\Vert u -g_n\Vert_{H^1(\Omega)}\rightarrow 0$. For every $g_n$ and every $x\in \Omega\setminus \{0\}$ we have (this is just the fundamental theorem of calculus walking in the radial direction to the boundary of the ball). \begin{align*} (\ast) \quad g_n(x) &= g_n(x/\vert x\vert)- \int_1^{1/\vert x\vert} \partial_s g_n(sx)ds \\ &= g_n(x/\vert x\vert)- \int_1^{1/\vert x\vert} (\nabla g_n)(sx)\cdot x \ ds \\ &= -\int_1^{L} \partial_{x} (\nabla g_n)(sx)\cdot x \ ds \end{align*} for any $L\geq 1/\vert x \vert$ as $g_n$ has compact support in $\Omega$. Using the previous equality and Minkowski's integral inequality we get \begin{align*} \left( \int_{\Omega_\varepsilon} \vert g_n(x)\vert^2 dx \right)^{1/2} &= \left( \int_{\Omega_\varepsilon} \left\vert \int_1^{1/\vert x \vert}\vert (\nabla g_n)(sx) \vert \cdot \vert x \vert ds \right\vert^2 dx \right)^{1/2} \\ &\leq \left( \int_{\Omega_\varepsilon} \left\vert \int_1^{1/(1-\varepsilon)}\vert (\nabla g_n)(sx) \vert \cdot \vert x \vert ds \right\vert^2 dx \right)^{1/2} \\ &\leq \int_1^{1/(1-\varepsilon)} \left(\int_{\Omega_\varepsilon} \vert (\nabla g_n)(sx)\vert^2 dx \right)^{1/2} ds \\ &= \int_1^{1/(1-\varepsilon)} \left(\int_{\Omega_\varepsilon} \vert (\nabla g_n)(sx)\vert^2 dx \right)^{1/2} ds \\ &\leq \int_1^{1/(1-\varepsilon)} s^{-n/2} \left(\int_{\Omega_\varepsilon} \vert (\nabla g_n)(y)\vert^2 dy \right)^{1/2} ds \\ &\leq \Vert g_n \Vert_{H^1(\Omega_\varepsilon)} \left(\frac{1}{1-\varepsilon}-1\right) \\ &= \varepsilon \frac{1}{1-\varepsilon} \Vert g_n \Vert_{H^1(\Omega_\varepsilon)}, \end{align*} where we have used that $(s\Omega_\varepsilon)\cap \Omega \subseteq \Omega_\varepsilon$ for $s\geq 1$ and $\vert x \vert \leq 1$ for $x\in \Omega_\varepsilon$. Letting $n\rightarrow \infty$ we get $$ \Vert u \Vert_{L^2(\Omega_\varepsilon)} \leq \frac{\varepsilon}{1-\varepsilon} \Vert u \Vert_{H^1(\Omega_\varepsilon)}. $$ This yields \begin{align*} \Vert (\nabla \chi_\varepsilon) u\Vert_{L^2(\Omega)} \leq \varepsilon^{-1} \left( \sup_{\vert r \vert \leq 1/2} \vert \varphi'(r) \vert \right) \Vert u \Vert_{L^2(\Omega_\varepsilon)} \leq \left( \sup_{\vert r \vert \leq 1/2} \vert \varphi'(r) \vert \right) \frac{\Vert u \Vert_{H^1(\Omega_\varepsilon)}}{1-\varepsilon}. \end{align*} Thus, in total we get $$ \lim_{\varepsilon \rightarrow 0^+} \Vert v_\varepsilon - u \Vert_{H^1(\Omega)} =0. $$ This means that we can approximate $u$ by radial functions in $H^1(\Omega)$ with support strictly contained in $B(0,1)$.

Smoothing: Let $\psi \in C_c^\infty(\mathbb{R}^n)$ be a radial and set $\psi_\delta(x)=\delta^{-n} \psi(x/\delta)$. Define $w_{\varepsilon,\delta} = \psi_\delta * v_\varepsilon$. As both $\psi_\delta$ and $v_\varepsilon$ are radial, we get that $w_{\varepsilon, \delta}$ is radial too. Furthermore, we have for $\delta<\varepsilon/2$ that $$\mathrm{supp}(w_{\varepsilon,\delta}) \subseteq \mathrm{supp}(v_\varepsilon)+\overline{B(0,\delta)} \subseteq \overline{B(0,1-\varepsilon/2+\delta)}\subset \Omega.$$ Thus, $w_{\varepsilon, \delta}\in C_{0, \mathrm{rad}}^\infty(\Omega)$. By standard theory, we get $w_{\varepsilon,\delta} = \psi_\delta * v_\varepsilon \rightarrow v_\varepsilon$ in $H^1$ and therefore, we can approximate $v_\varepsilon$ by functions in $C_{0,\mathrm{rad}}^\infty(\Omega)$. Finally, using $$ \Vert u - w_{\varepsilon, \delta} \Vert_{H^1(\Omega)} \leq \Vert u - v_\varepsilon \Vert_{H^1(\Omega)} + \Vert v_\varepsilon - w_{\varepsilon,\delta}\Vert_{H^1(\Omega)} $$ we conclude that $u\in \overline{C_{0,\mathrm{rad}}^\infty(\Omega)}^{H^1(\Omega)}$.

1

Let $u \in H^1_0(B)$ a radial function. For a given $\delta > 0$, consider $\varphi_\delta$ a standard radial mollifier. Now, let $\overline{u}$ the extension by zero of $u$ to $\mathbb{R}^N$

Lemma 1: Given $\epsilon > 0$, fixed, there exists $v_\epsilon \in C^\infty_0(\mathbb{R}^N)$, radial, and $\delta_\epsilon > 0$ such that $$ \| \overline{u} - v_\epsilon\|_{H^1_0(B)} < \epsilon \quad \text{ and }\quad \text{supp} (v_\epsilon) + \text{supp} (\varphi_\delta) \subset B, \quad \forall\,\, 0 < \delta < \delta_\epsilon. $$ Let $\epsilon > 0$. Notice that $v_\epsilon \in H^1(\mathbb{R}^N)$. Applying Theorem 1, p. 264, from Evans, PDE, 2010 with $U = \mathbb{R}^N$, we define $u_{\delta,\epsilon}= \varphi_\delta \ast v_\epsilon$, for $\delta > 0$ and obtain, for each $\epsilon > 0$, $u_{\delta,\epsilon} \to v_\epsilon$ in $H^1_{\text{loc}}(\mathbb{R}^N)$ as $\delta \to 0$. In particular, $u_{\delta,\epsilon} \to v_\epsilon$ in $H^1(B)$ as $\delta \to 0$. If we take $0 < \delta < \delta_\epsilon$, notice that $\text{supp} u_{\delta,\epsilon} \subset B$ and $u_{\delta,\epsilon} \in C^\infty_0(B)$. Finally, for this fixed $\epsilon > 0$, choose $0 < \ell_\epsilon < \delta_\epsilon$ and see that
$$ \|v_\epsilon - u_{\ell_\epsilon, \epsilon} \|_{H^1_0(B)} < \epsilon. $$ Now, define $w_\epsilon = u_{\ell_\epsilon, \epsilon} = \varphi_{\ell_\epsilon} \ast v_\epsilon$ and notice that $$ \|u - w_\epsilon\|_{H^1_0(B)} = \|\overline{u} - u_{\ell_\epsilon,\epsilon}\|_{H^1_0(B)} \leq \|\overline{u} - v_\epsilon \|_{H^1_0(B)} + \|v_\epsilon - u_{\ell_\epsilon,\epsilon} \|_{H^1_0(B)} < \epsilon + \epsilon = 2\epsilon. $$ Thus $w_\epsilon \to u$ in $H^1_0(B)$ as $\epsilon \to 0$. Of course convolution of radial functions is also radial, so $w_\epsilon \in C^\infty_{0,\text{rad}}(B)$.

ThiagoGM
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    I would mention that $\varphi_\delta$ is radial and try to include a reference for your lemma. Apart from that it looks pretty good. – Severin Schraven May 19 '24 at 20:21
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    Ok, maybe you don't want to make a distinction between the $u_\delta$ (one is with fixed $\varepsilon$ while the other not). That is why I had introduced my $\ell_\varepsilon$. – Severin Schraven May 19 '24 at 20:24
  • Thank you @SeverinSchraven. I am trying to prove the Lemma 1, but I couldn't. I am trying to use the $C^\infty$ version of Urysohn Lemma (https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/1675285/c-infty-urysohn-lemma). – ThiagoGM May 20 '24 at 13:08
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    The construction of $\chi_\varepsilon$ is not difficult (take a fixed cut-off function, rescale and translate). The hard part is to show that $\Vert \nabla (u - \chi_\varepsilon u) \Vert_{L^2}\rightarrow 0$. This is where you need to use $u\in H_0^1$. – Severin Schraven May 20 '24 at 14:06
  • My attempt: Let $f$ a smooth function such that $\text{supp} (f) = B_{1/4}(0)$. Now define $\chi_\epsilon = \epsilon f$. Notice that $\text{supp}(\chi_\epsilon) + B_{\delta}(0) = B_{1/4}(0) + B_{\delta}(0) \subset B$ for any $\delta < 1/4$. Now do I have to use the fact that $u \in H^1_0(B)$ to show that $|\nabla (u - \chi_\epsilon u) |_{L^2(B)} \to 0$ as $\epsilon \to 0$ ? – ThiagoGM May 20 '24 at 14:49
  • I tried to define $\chi_\epsilon = 1-\epsilon + \epsilon f$, but the support of $\chi_\epsilon$ becomes all $\mathbb{R}^N$. – ThiagoGM May 20 '24 at 15:08
  • This is not quite how to do it. In any case, I've come up with a slightly more direct way of proving things by symmetrizing (see my answer). – Severin Schraven May 20 '24 at 15:54
  • @SeverinSchraven, your proof using Haar measure is perfect and solves the problem. However I am still interested in the proof I wrote. Do you know where I can find a proof for the Lemma 1? I am still interested because I need to apply these ideas in another problem. – ThiagoGM May 20 '24 at 18:03
  • Well, you should look up how it is proved without radial symmetry. Then pick a radial cut-off and everything works the same. – Severin Schraven May 20 '24 at 18:10
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    You can use the proof in Brezis' book "Functional Analysis, Sobolev Spaces and Partial Differential Equations" (Theorem $9.17$). Instead of a multiplicative cut-off he uses $u_n=\frac{1}{n} G\circ u$. Then you need to use the chain rule and the fact that $u$ vanishes on the boundary to conclude. His $G$ can be chosen radially and thus, everything goes through in the radial case as it should. – Severin Schraven May 20 '24 at 18:40
  • Of course it should have been $u_n=\frac{1}{n} G(n u)$. – Severin Schraven May 20 '24 at 19:30
  • I am getting tired of this. We define $u_n$ as I wrote, then we know that the support is strictly contained in $\Omega$ (this is non-trivial, see Brezis). This is the replacement for $\chi_\varepsilon u$. After that we still need to mollify to get something smooth. – Severin Schraven May 20 '24 at 20:21
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    Now I understood. Sorry for making you to get tired. – ThiagoGM May 20 '24 at 20:25
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    Alright, one can also do this by multiplying with a cut-off function (I have spelled that out in an answer). In general it seems that all of this is just very annoying. If one wants to do it with the composition by a suitable $G$ one needs to worry about the support of $u$ which is a pain as it is apriori only a $H^1$ function. Personally I like the averaging approach of my first answer best as it is fairly clean. – Severin Schraven May 21 '24 at 13:57