32

Consider the polynomial $$f_n(x)=\int_0^x (1-s^2)^n ds$$ for some integer $n$. I am interested in these polynomials for reasons unrelated to this question: these are the odd polynomials of which the maximum possible number of derivatives vanish at $x=\pm 1$.

The first few such polynomials are $$f_0(x)=x$$ $$f_1(x)=x-\frac{x^3}{3}$$ $$f_2(x)=x-\frac{2 x^3}{3}+\frac{x^5}{5}$$ $$f_3(x)=x-x^3+\frac{3 x^5}{5}-\frac{x^7}{7}$$

On a whim, I plotted the roots of these polynomials, I find that they all lie on a lemniscate. For example, for $n=50$, the roots of this polynomial for n=50

I suspect there is some "limit lemniscate" as $n\rightarrow \infty$. This comes as a complete surprise to me. Why should the roots of these polynomials lie on a lemniscate, at all?

Wouter
  • 8,117
  • 8
    Looks like a double Szegö curve which is not crazy since $(1-(s/n)^2)^n\to e^{-s^2}$. – LPZ May 13 '24 at 15:04
  • 1
    A remark (is it useful ?) This answer provides the following relationship : $f_n(x)=x(1-x^2)^n+2n(f_{n+1}(x)-f_{n-1}(x))$ which can be turned into a second-order recurrence relationship for the $f_n(x)$. – Jean Marie May 13 '24 at 15:15
  • 1
    To be precise, the plot is of these roots in the complex plane. – Semiclassical May 13 '24 at 16:41
  • 1
    Connected : https://akjournals.com/view/journals/10998/25/2/article-p179.xml https://www.cambridge.org/core/journals/canadian-journal-of-mathematics/article/zeros-of-iterated-integrals-of-polynomials/3A3A64E1F67DC8B769A944F55135D236 – Jean Marie May 13 '24 at 16:48
  • 1
    One minor observation. Obviously, $x=0$ is always a root of $f_n(x)$. If we approximate in the neighborhood of zero, though, we get $f_n(x)\approx x-n x^3/3$. So for any finite $n$ we should expect to find no other zeros than $x=0$ in a neighborhood of radius $\sqrt{3/n}$. (Hence the large "excluded" zone around the origin for any finite $n$.) – Semiclassical May 13 '24 at 16:58
  • 6
    A more interesting observation is that, according to Mathematica, this polynomial can be expressed as a hypergeometric function: $f_n(x)={2}F{1}(1/2,-n;3/2,x^2)$. (This hypergeometric function truncates for any nonnegative integer $n$ and is thus actually a polynomial.) Upon further experimentation, it appears that the zeros of ${2}F{1}(1/2,-n;3/2,1+z)$ converge to the unit circle in $z$ as $n\to\infty$. This is presumably equivalent to the lemniscate, but may be simpler to prove. – Semiclassical May 13 '24 at 17:05
  • 2
    Is the claim that the roots of each polynomial in the sequence lie on a lemniscate or just the the limit of the curve on which they lie is a lemniscate? My numerical calculations suggest that the roots of $f_3$ and $f_4$, for instance, don't in fact lie on a lemniscate. – mcd May 14 '24 at 20:56
  • 2
    I don't have a specific type of lemniscate in mind. There are many kinds, and the roots do lie on figure-8 curves "lemniscates" not just in the limit but also for finite $n$, even $n=3$ or $n=4$. Why would the roots lie on a simple curve at all, as opposed to being scattered around the complex plane? – Wouter May 14 '24 at 21:02

3 Answers3

14

enter image description here

Fig. 1 : The roots of polynomial $f_{31}$ and the standard lemniscate with equ. $(x^2+y^2)^2=2(x^2-y^2)$. This figure has been drawn with a "SAGE" program (see remark at the bottom).

The remarkable last comments by @Semiclassical

$$\begin{cases}f_n(Z)&=&{_2}F_{1}(1/2,-n;3/2,Z^2)\color{red}{Z}\\ f_n(\sqrt{1-z})&=&{_2}F_{1}(1/2,-n;3/2,1+z)\color{red}{\sqrt{1-z}}\end{cases}$$

can be understood at the light of the following

Lemma : the (double) complex mapping defined by :

$$z \mapsto Z=\pm \sqrt{1+z} \ \iff \ Z^2=1+z\tag{1}$$

maps the unit circle $U$ onto the "unit lemniscate".

Proof of lemma : (1) is equivalent to

$$(Z-1)(Z+1)=z$$

Therefore, we have :

$$|Z-1| |Z+1|=|z|$$

As a consequence, constraining $z$ to be with modulus $1$ is equivalent to say that the product of distances of $Z$ to "foci" $-1$ and $+1$ is equal to constant $1$, which is one of the definitions of Bernoulli's lemniscate, as a particular case of Cassini ovals). $\square$

enter image description here

Fig. 2.

Now, it remains to establish that the roots of the second polynomial in (1) are closer and closer to the unit circle $U$ as examplified by figure 3 obtained using Wolfram Alpha (see Remark 3 below) in the case $n=15$ : not only are they close to $U$ but also close to the $n+1=16$th roots of unity. Therefore, the question remains open...

enter image description here

Fig. 3.

Remarks :

  1. Fig. 1 has been drawn with the following "SAGE" program :

     from sage.functions.hypergeometric import closed_form
     var('x y')
     P = lambda n : simplify(closed_form(hypergeometric([1/2,-n],[3/2], x^2)))
     g=Graphics()
     L=[[0,0]]
     w=P(32)
     s=w.roots(ring=CDF)
     for k in range(len(s)) :
        u=s[k][0]
        L.append([real_part(u),imag_part(u)])
     g+=plot(point(L,color='red', xmin=-2,xmax=2, ymin = -1, ymax = 1, aspect_ratio=1))
     g+=implicit_plot((x^2+y^2)^2==2*(x^2-y^2),(x,-2,2),(y,-1,1))
     g+=plot(line(([-2,0],[2,0]),color='black'))
     g+=plot(line(([0,-1],[0,1]),color='black'))
     show(g)
    
  2. Fig. 2 has been drawn using the following Matlab script :

     t=0:pi/100:2*pi;
     plot(1+exp(i*t));hold on;axis equal;
     for s=-1:2:1
        plot(s*sqrt(1+exp(i*t)));hold on;
     end;
    
  3. Fig. 3 has been obtained with Wolfram Alpha by asking :

$$\text{roots (sqrt(1+x) 2F1(1/2, -15, 3/2, 1+x))}$$

Jean Marie
  • 88,997
  • Maybe the explicit formula can be written for the leminscate, like $z=f(x)+g(y) i$? – Тyma Gaidash May 14 '24 at 18:17
  • 1
    @Tyma Gaidash I am not sure that such a formula exists. See my Edit for a kind of geometrical representation. – Jean Marie May 14 '24 at 18:22
  • A beautiful answer, but then the question becomes "why do the roots of ${2}F{1}(1/2,-n;3/2,1+z)$ approach the unit circle for large $n$?" – Wouter May 14 '24 at 21:06
  • I have modified my answer in order to take your remark into account. – Jean Marie May 14 '24 at 22:27
  • It is probably valuable to explore Szegö curves as advised in the first comment and which I have met in an answer of mine here. – Jean Marie May 14 '24 at 22:34
  • @underflow 1) I agree with your remarks. 2) Please write this "actual answer". I will be happy to see it and most probably upvote it. – Jean Marie May 16 '24 at 16:37
  • @underflow Indeed, I was confusing you with user "semiclassical" – Jean Marie May 18 '24 at 17:17
  • @semiclassical I would like to know, if it is possible, how you have found the amazing transformations you have given. A reason among others : doing some web search, I found a new way to answer a question to which I had already given an answer (conformal mapping of a disk onto a square ; see my today's edit here and this new way involves a hypergeometric function which is of the same type as yours... I don't know in articular if/how it can connected to the other transforms I had previously found... – Jean Marie May 18 '24 at 17:39
  • @JeanMarie +1 Beautiful answer and graphics! A picture is worth a thousand words, indeed. – Tito Piezas III Jan 27 '25 at 08:29
  • @JeanMarie: Great answer! Nice and instructive. (+1) – Markus Scheuer Jan 27 '25 at 18:54
  • 1
    @fedjafan Thank you ! – Jean Marie Jan 30 '25 at 12:27
  • @fedjafan At first, I hadn't understood why you included (in your deleted answer) the (remarkable) UTube video about Riemann Hypothesis. Now I understand that you wanted to say that this issue has a common point about the possibility/impossibility of prolungation. Is it right ? Do you have references about all that ? – Jean Marie Jan 30 '25 at 19:08
4

Definitions: Let $p_n(z)=(1-z^2)^n$. Now fix $n\geq1$ and let $p=p_n$, $f=f_n$, $x_0=0$ and let $x_+$ be the positive root if $n$ is odd and if $n$ is even define $x_+$ to be the unique positive real such that $\vert f(x_+)\vert=2\vert f(1)\vert$ and for $i\geq1$ let $x_i$ be the remaining roots in the right half plane (because of the symmetry over the imaginary axis it is enough to show the claim for these zeros). We will use $x$ to denote any of these zeros. Further define the filled level sets $S_h=\{z:\vert1-z^2\vert\leq h\}$. For a curve $\gamma:[0,\infty)\to\mathbb{C}$ define the curve $\tilde\gamma:[0,\infty)\to\mathbb{R}^2$ with $\tilde\gamma(h)=(\Re(\gamma(h)),\Im(\gamma(h)))$. Further set $\gamma_+=\gamma_{x_+}$ and $\gamma_0=\gamma_{x_0}$.

We will make use of $\nabla_{x,y}$ which is the gradient, for example $\nabla_{x,y}\vert(1-(x+iy)^2)\vert\big\vert_{x+iy=\gamma_x(h)}$ means the gradient of the real function $\vert(1-(x+iy)^2)\vert$ with respect to $(x,y)$ evaluated at $x=\Re(\gamma_x(h))$ and $y=\Im(\gamma_x(h))$.

Note that for any level set $L=\{z:\vert1-z^2\vert= h\}$ we have for all $z\in L$ that $z_0\leq\vert z\vert\leq z_+$ where $z_0$ is, if it exists (i.e. if $h\leq1$), is the smaller point of the intersection of $L$ with the non negative real axis and $z_+$ is the bigger one (either see it by the forumla $\vert1-z^2\vert=h$ or transform this formula into polar coordinates).

We will use the variables $h$ and $H$ which stand for height. If $z\in\mathbb{C}$ the height of $z$ is $\vert 1-z^2\vert$. Here is a picture of the surface (seen from two different angles) parametrized by $\vert 1-(x+i y)^2\vert$ where the colors represent the height and the lines drawn on the surface are the level sets.

enter image description here

Strategy of proof:

We will squeeze the zeros between two level sets:

enter image description here

Below we will define curves $\gamma_x$ with $\gamma_x(0)=1$ which go through $x$ such that $\vert1-\gamma_x(h)^2\vert=h$ (this just means that $\gamma_x(h)$ is parametrized by height, so $\gamma_x(h)$ has height $h$). So we get for $\gamma_x(H)=Z$ (so $\vert 1-Z^2\vert=H$) that

$$f_n(Z)=\int_0^Zp_n(z)dz=\int_0^1p_n(z)dz+\int_1^Zp_n(z)dz=f_n(1)+\int\limits_{\gamma_x\big\vert_{[0,H]}}p_n(z)dz$$

so it is enough to show, since $f_n(1)$ is a non zero real, that

$$\left\vert\int\limits_{\gamma_+\big\vert_{[0,H]}}p_n(z)dz\right\vert\leq\left\vert\int\limits_{\gamma_x\big\vert_{[0,H]}}p_n(z)dz\right\vert\leq\left\vert\int\limits_{\gamma_0\big\vert_{[0,H]}}p_n(z)dz\right\vert$$

where $\gamma_0$ and $\gamma_+$ are the curves on the real line (the right inequality holds up to $H=1$, the left holds for $H\geq0$). This chain of inequalites implies

$$\operatorname{height}x_0\leq\operatorname{height}x\leq\operatorname{height}x_+.$$

Intuition: The intuition for what's going on in the following is just this: The level sets are densest on the real axis to the right of $1$ and sparsest on the real axis to the left of $1$ (up to $0$) and the density is $\Vert\nabla_{x,y}\vert p(x+iy)\vert\Vert$.

Proof

Claim: The polynomial $f$ hasn't got any non zero zeros inside $S_1$. For this define for each $x$ the unique curve $\gamma_x:[0,\infty)\to\mathbb{C}$ (except for $x_0$ for which the domain is $[0,1]$) with the following properties:

  1. $\tilde\gamma_x'(h)$ is parallel to $\nabla_{x,y}\vert(1-(x+iy)^2)\vert\big\vert_{x+iy=\gamma_x(h)}$ (orthogonal trajectory)

  2. $\vert (1-\gamma_x(h)^2)\vert=h$ (choice of parametrization - parametrization by height)

  3. $\gamma_x(0)=1$ (choice of initial point)

  4. $\gamma_x(\vert1-\gamma_x(x)^2\vert)=x$ (choice of initial angle - $\gamma_x$ goes through $x$)

enter image description here

We have

$$\vert p(\gamma_x(h))\vert=h^n$$

so

$$\Vert\nabla_{x,y}\vert p(x+iy)\vert\big\vert_{x+iy=\gamma_x(h)}\Vert\vert\gamma_x^{'}(h)\vert=\nabla_{x,y}\vert p(x+iy)\vert\big\vert_{x+iy=\gamma_x(h)}\cdot\tilde\gamma_x^{'}(h)=\vert p(\gamma_x(h))\vert^{'}=nh^{n-1}$$

hence

$$\vert\gamma_x^{'}(h)\vert=\frac{nh^{n-1}}{\Vert\nabla_{x,y}\vert p(x+iy)\vert\big\vert_{x+iy=\gamma_x(h)}\Vert}=\frac{nh^{n-1}}{\vert p'(\gamma_x(h))\vert}=\frac{nh^{n-1}}{\vert-2\gamma_x(h)n(1-\gamma(h)^2)^{n-1}\vert}=$$

$$\frac{h^{n-1}}{\vert2\gamma_x(h)h^{n-1}\vert}=\frac{1}{2\vert\gamma_x(h)\vert}$$

therefore

$$\left\vert\int\limits_{\gamma_x\big\vert_{[0,H]}}p(z)dz\right\vert=\left\vert\int\limits_0^Hp(\gamma_x(h))\gamma_x^{'}(h)dh\right\vert\leq\int\limits_0^H\vert p(\gamma_x(h))\gamma_x^{'}(h)\vert dh=\int\limits_0^Hh^n\vert\gamma_x^{'}(h)\vert dh=$$

$$\int\limits_0^Hh^n\vert\gamma_x^{'}(h)\vert dh=\int\limits_0^H\frac{h^n}{2\vert\gamma_x(h)\vert} dh\leq\int\limits_0^H\frac{h^n}{2\gamma_0(h)} dh=\left\vert\int\limits_0^Hh^n\gamma_0(h)^{'} dh\right\vert=\left\vert\int\limits_{\gamma_0\big\vert_{[0,H]}}p(z)dz\right\vert$$

which establishes the claim.

Claim: All roots of $f$ are contained in $S_{\vert 1-x_+^2\vert}$. For this define for each $x$ the unique curve $\gamma_x:[0,\infty)\to\mathbb{C}$ (except for $x_0$ for which the domain is $[0,1]$) with the following properties:

  1. $\forall h\geq0\text{ }f(\gamma_x(h))\in\mathbb{R}$ (line of constant argument of $f$)

  2. $\vert (1-\gamma_x(h)^2)\vert=h$ (choice of parametrization - parametrization by height)

  3. $\gamma_x(0)=1$ (choice of initial point)

  4. $\gamma_x(\vert1-\gamma_x(x)^2\vert)=x$ (choice of initial angle - $\gamma_x$ goes through $x$)

enter image description here

We have

$$\vert p(\gamma_x(h))\vert=h^n$$

so

$$\Vert\nabla_{x,y}\vert p(x+iy)\vert\big\vert_{x+iy=\gamma_x(h)}\Vert\vert\gamma_x^{'}(h)\vert\vert\cos\theta_x(h)\vert=\nabla_{x,y}\vert p(x+iy)\vert\big\vert_{x+iy=\gamma_x(h)}\cdot\tilde\gamma_x^{'}(h)=$$

$$\vert p(\gamma_x(h))\vert^{'}=nh^{n-1}$$

where $\theta_x(h)$ is the angle between the two quantities from which we took the dot product hence by a similar calculation as above

$$\vert\gamma_x^{'}(h)\vert=\frac{1}{2\vert\gamma_x(h)\vert\vert\cos\theta_x(h)\vert}$$

therefore

$$\left\vert\int\limits_{\gamma_+\big\vert_{[0,H]}}p(z)dz\right\vert=\left\vert\int\limits_0^Hp(\gamma_+(h))\gamma_+^{'}(h)dh\right\vert=\left\vert\int\limits_0^H\frac{h^n}{2\gamma_+(h)}dh\right\vert\leq\int\limits_0^H\left\vert\frac{h^n}{2\gamma_x(h)\cos\theta_x(h)}\right\vert dh=$$

$$\int\limits_0^H\left\vert\frac{p(\gamma_x(h))}{2\gamma_x(h)\cos\theta_x(h)}\right\vert dh=\left\vert\int\limits_0^Hp(\gamma_x(h))\gamma_x(h)^{'} dh\right\vert=\left\vert\int\limits_{\gamma_x\big\vert_{[0,H]}}p(z)dz\right\vert$$ where we used that $p(\gamma_x(h))\gamma_x(h)^{'}$ is real and of constant sign in the second last equality which establishes the claim.

Now clearly $\vert1-x_+^2\vert\to1$ as $n\to\infty$ and we are done.

Existence of solutions to differential equations: One can pick ones favorite local existence theorem. It is not hard, in this example, to show the existence and uniqueness of global solutions by hand by piecing together the local solutions.

There is one minor justification left to be done.

fedjafan

0

The Euler formula gives $$_2F_1(1/2,-n;3/2,1-z)=\frac{1}{2}\int_0^1(1-x+xz)^n\frac{dx}{\sqrt{x}}$$ which tends to zero when $|z|=1$ and $z\neq 1$ by dominated convergence.