One property of the Dirac Delta Distribution is $x \delta'(x) = -\delta(x)$ because of $\int x \delta'(x) f(x) dx = -\int \delta(x) (xf(x))' dx = -\int \delta(x) (f(x)+xf'(x)) dx = -\int \delta(x) f(x) dx = -f(0)$. This property is in the same vein as $x \delta(x) =0$.
I will now say that $x \delta'(x) = -\delta(x) \implies \delta'(x) = -\delta(x)/x$. My question is now, when is this a sensible statment? I would argue that we should assume $f(0) = 0$ to avoid divergence. This brings us to $\int \frac{\delta(x)}{x} f(x) dx = \lim_{x \rightarrow 0 } \frac{f(x)}{x} = f'(0) $, where the last equal arises from the limit definition of the derivative of $x=0$ for $f(x)=0$ or as well by L'Hospital, making it consistent.
Any ideas if this is ever useful or if this can be made more generally? This can't be a true equality, I would be also thankful for additional information for the distribution of $1/x$.
Thank you!