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Jacobi's triple product identity states that:

$\displaystyle \sum_{n = -\infty}^{\infty}z^{n}q^{n^{2}} = \prod_{n = 1}^{\infty}(1 - q^{2n})(1 + zq^{2n - 1})(1 + z^{-1}q^{2n - 1})$

I've seen a messy proof of this, but I still don't have any feeling for why it should be true. Is there some intuition behind it? (Or at least some reasonably nice combinatorial argument...)

Malper
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1 Answers1

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The lecture notes of Igor Pak "Partition bijections, a survey" give several nice combinatorial proofs in chapter $6$ - Jacobi’s triple product identity: http://www.math.ucla.edu/~pak/papers/psurvey.pdf‎. It is perhaps a matter of taste what the intuition behind it is. This involves certainly much more than just a nice combinatorial argument, e.g., elliptic functions, Jacobi theta functions, etc., see the interesting discussion here: Motivation for/history of Jacobi's triple product identity.

Dietrich Burde
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