In a now deleted post appeared an interesting integral.
$$I=\int\frac 1 x \,\,\sin \left(\frac{\log (x)}{x}\right) \,dx$$ which does not make (too much) problems from a numerical point of view.
As one can expect, the plot of the integrand is not the most pleasnat we could find.
$$\frac{\log(x)}x=-t \quad\implies\quad x=\frac{W(t)}{t}\quad \implies \quad $$ $$I=\int \frac{W(t) }{1+W(t)}\,\, \frac {\sin(t)} t \, dt=\text{Si}(t)-\int \frac{1 }{1+W(t)}\,\, \frac {\sin(t)} t \, dt$$ which is much more pleasant to look at and even easier to integrate nmerically.
My question is : how could we approximate the integrand to have a decent approximation for the integral between $k\pi$ and $(k+1)\pi$ ?$k$ being a non negative integer.
Edit
Thanks to @Hume2's answer, the problem now reduces to $$I=W(t)\,\sin(t)-\int W(t)\,\cos(t)\, dt$$ $$J_k=-\int_{k\pi}^{(k+1)\pi} W(t)\,\cos(t)\, dt$$
Asymptotically, it seems that $$|J_k| \sim \frac{1}{2 k}+\frac{3}{4k^2}+\frac{19}{4k^3}+O\left(\frac{1}{k^4}\right)$$