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While TAing a linear algebra class, I happened upon the following question:

Question: for $n\geq 3$, are there continuous operations $+, \cdot : \mathbb R^n \times \mathbb R^n \to \mathbb R^n$ that give $\mathbb R^n$ the structure of a field?

(Obviously if I omit the word "continuous", one can choose a set bijection with, say, $\mathbb R$, and inherit the field structure of $\mathbb R$. And if the operations restrict to the familiar ones on $\mathbb R \subseteq \mathbb R^n$, creating a real field extension, then Frobenius' theorem tells us the answer is NO.)

I asked this to my fellow graduate students, and one of them was so kind as to give me the following wonderful response:

I think it's impossible for $\mathbb R^3$, and more generally for $\mathbb R^n$ for if $n\neq 1,2,4,8$. There's something called the Hopf invariant, it's a homomorphism $H: \pi_{2n-1}(S^n) \to \mathbb Z$, defined as follows: a map $f: S^{2n-1}\to S^n$ gives you instructions to make a cell complex $X$ with a cell in dimensions $0$, $n$, and $2n$. Then $H^n(X; \mathbb Z)$ is generated by some class $\sigma$ and $H^{2n}(X; \mathbb Z)$ is generated by a class $\tau$. You define $H(f)$ as the integer so that $\sigma^2 = H(f) \tau$.

Note that $H(f)$ for a map $f: S^{2n-1} \to S^n$ is $0$ if $n$ is odd, just by the anticommutativity of the cup product. On the other hand, if there exists a continuous map $\mu:\mathbb R^n \times \mathbb R^n \to \mathbb R^n$ ["multiplication"] and distinct elements $e, z \in \mathbb R^n$ ["1", "0" resp.] so that $\mu(e, x) = \mu(x, e) = x$ and $\mu(x, y) \neq z$ when $x, y \neq z$, I think you can construct a map $f: S^{2n-1} \to S^n$ of Hopf invariant $1$. This is outlined in Mosher & Tangora chapter 4, in the exercises. The hardest exercise is maybe 4.2, but this is Proposition 15.15 in Bredon. More generally, a map of Hopf invariant $1$ is known to exist if and only if $n = 2, 4, 8$.

Perhaps someone has a proof with other technology, or a proof that works for $n=4,8$, the only remaining cases.

EDIT: I suppose the above proof is essentially that in Detail in the proof of $\mathbb{R}^n$ is a division algebra only for $n=1,2,4,8$, and also similar to Can we turn $\mathbb{R}^n$ into a field by changing the multiplication?

D.R.
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  • I'm not convinced that the argument of your fellow grad student works. The construction classifies division algebras over $\mathbb{R}$, but "continuous operations making $\mathbb{R}^n$ into a field" is on the nose weaker: Multiplication need not be bilinear with respect to the usual vector space structure, and then you cannot resort to restricting to norm 1 vectors to reduce to H-spaces. – Ben Steffan Apr 26 '24 at 11:32
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    However, if you can somehow reduce to division algebras, then you don't need as highbrow an argument as the resolution to the Hopf-invariant-1-problem at all: An $n$-dimensional algebra over $\mathbb{R}$ which is a field is in particular a field extension of $\mathbb{R}$ of degree $n$, so all you need to invoke is the fundamental theorem of algebra and some basics about algebraic field extensions (still a bit advanced for a linear algebra class, perhaps, but certainly much better than the usual K-theory argument you need for Hopf invariant 1 :). – Ben Steffan Apr 26 '24 at 11:35
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    @BenSteffan: Their argument works. A field structure on $\mathbb{R}^n$ gives a group structure on $\mathbb{R}^n\setminus{0}\simeq S^{n-1}$ which then gives an $H$-space structure on $S^{n-1}$ by transporting along the homotopy equivalence – Eric Wofsey Apr 26 '24 at 15:00
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    I haven't received that many downvotes on questions before, but this one got -2. Was there an issue in my post? – D.R. Apr 27 '24 at 08:24
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    When I was a student I had to learn the Steenrod squares proof that $n$ must be a power of $2$, to get a Hopf invariant of $1$. I vaguely remember that the result dropped out of Lucas's Theorem: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Lucas%27s_theorem, which I thought was a nice connection between things you might not expect to be related. – tkf Apr 27 '24 at 17:31

3 Answers3

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First of all, suppose $+^{\prime}\colon\mathbb{R}^n\times\mathbb{R}^n\rightarrow\mathbb{R}^n$ is any map that makes $(\mathbb{R}^n,+^{\prime})$ into a topological group. Then, $\mathbb{R}^n$ is a manifold, so Hilbert's 5th implies that $(\mathbb{R}^n,+^{\prime})$ is isomorphic as a topological group to a Lie group. However, the connected abelian Lie groups are products of Euclidean spaces and tori, hence uniquely determined by their underlying manifold, so $(\mathbb{R}^n,+^{\prime})\cong(\mathbb{R}^n,+)$, where $+$ is the usual addition on $\mathbb{R}^n$.

Thus, in the given scenario, we may suppose w.l.o.g. that $+$ is the usual addition on $\mathbb{R}^n$ and $\cdot\colon\mathbb{R}^n\times\mathbb{R}^n\rightarrow\mathbb{R}^n$ is some map turning $(\mathbb{R}^n,+,\cdot)$ into a topological field. Now, let $e$ denote the multiplicative identity of $\mathbb{R}^n$ and juxtaposition denote scalar multiplication. I claim $\lambda e\cdot x=\lambda x$ for all $x\in\mathbb{R}^n$ and $\lambda\in\mathbb{R}$. Indeed, for rational $\lambda$, this is a direct consequence of the usual additive structure and field axioms. For real $\lambda$, it is then a consequence of continuity (note that this only requires continuity of $\cdot$ if one variable is held fixed, which is weaker than joint continuity).

This implies that $\mathbb{R}^n$ is a field extension of $\mathbb{R}$. Thus, $n=1$ or $2$ and the corresponding field is isomorphic to either $\mathbb{R}$ or $\mathbb{C}$ with their usual multiplication for purely algebraic reasons (essentially the FTA).

Thorgott
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If $0$ is the zero element of the field structure on $\mathbb{R}^n$, then $\mathbb{R}^n\setminus\{0\}$ is a topological abelian group under multiplication. Any topological abelian group is weak homotopy equivalent to a product of Eilenberg-Mac Lane spaces. Since the only nontrivial reduced cohomology of $\mathbb{R}^n\setminus\{0\}$ is in degree $n-1$, this implies $\mathbb{R}^n\setminus\{0\}\simeq K(\mathbb{Z},n-1)$. However, this is false if $n\geq 3$, since for instance $\pi_n(\mathbb{R}^n\setminus\{0\})\cong \pi_n(S^{n-1})$ is nontrivial.

(Alternatively, you can use the closely related Dold-Thom theorem. The abelian group structure on $\mathbb{R}^n\setminus\{0\}$ gives a retraction $SP(\mathbb{R}^n\setminus\{0\},1)\to \mathbb{R}^n\setminus\{0\}$. By Dold-Thom, $\pi_i(SP(\mathbb{R}^n\setminus\{0\},1))\cong \tilde{H}_i(\mathbb{R}^n\setminus\{0\})$, so this retraction means that if $\pi_i(\mathbb{R}^n\setminus\{0\})$ is nontrivial then $\tilde{H}_i(\mathbb{R}^n\setminus\{0\})$ is nontrivial as well. But this is false if $n\geq 3$.)

Eric Wofsey
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  • Sorry, may I ask for a reference for "any topological abelian group is weak homotopy equivalent to a product of Eilenberg-Mac Lane spaces"? – D.R. Apr 26 '24 at 17:43
  • @GregMartin: Oops, yes of course. – Eric Wofsey Apr 26 '24 at 23:22
  • @D.R.: I don't know a reference for that exact statement, but the analogous statement for simplicial sets (rather than topological spaces) is Proposition III.2.18 in Goerss and Jardine's Simplicial Homotopy Theory. The case of topological spaces follows by considering the singular simplicial complex of the space. – Eric Wofsey Apr 26 '24 at 23:26
  • To sketch the proof, a simplicial abelian group is the same as a (nonnegatively graded) chain complex of abelian groups by the Dold-Kan correspondence. But every chain complex of abelian groups is quasi-isomorphic to its homology, and the simplicial abelian group corresponding to a chain complex with only one nonzero term is an Eilenberg-Mac Lane space. – Eric Wofsey Apr 26 '24 at 23:28
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    @D.R. This can also be deduced from the Dold-Thom Theorem, see Corollary 4K.7 in Hatcher. – Thorgott Apr 27 '24 at 00:22
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There's a relevant result from algebraic number theory, which could be called "the topological classification/characterization of local fields":

Suppose that $K$ is any topological field that is locally compact and does not carry the trivial topology nor the discrete topology. Then $K$ is isomorphic as a topological field, to one of the following:

  • $\Bbb R$
  • $\Bbb C$
  • A finite extension of $\Bbb Q_p$ for some $p$
  • $\Bbb F_q((T))$ for some prime power $q$.

As you can see, the only connected ones on the list are $\Bbb R$ and $\Bbb C$, which proves the result that you're after, since a homeomorphism of manifolds preserves the dimension.

Lukas Heger
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