This answer uses $X,Y,Z$ that you defined.
Let $E$ be a point on $BC$ such that $ME\parallel CD$.
Let $F$ be a point on $CD$ such that $MF\parallel BD$.
Let $G$ be a point on $BD$ such that $MG\parallel BC$.
Then, we have $$AD:AX=BC:BE\tag1$$ (Proof : Let us consider the plane $\alpha$ on which $A,A',B$ and $M$ exist. Let $P$ be the intersection point of $\alpha$ with $CD$. Then, we have $PA:AA'=PB:MB$. We also have $PA:AA'=AD:AX$ and $PB:MB=BC:BE$. So, we get $AD:AX=BC:BE$.$\ \square$)
Similarly, we have
$$AD:AX=CD:CF\tag2$$
$$AC:AY=DB:DG\tag3$$
Now, if $(BCD)\parallel (A'B'C')$, then we can say that $AD:AX=AC:AY$.
So, it follows from $(1)(2)(3)$ that
$$BC:BE=CD:CF=DB:DG\tag4$$
Let $H$ be a point on $BD$ such that $MH\parallel CD$.
Let $I$ be a point on $BC$ such that $MI\parallel BD$.
Let $J$ be a point on $CD$ such that $MJ\parallel BC$.
We have $$CJ=FD\tag5$$
By Menelaus's theorem, we get
$$\frac{CF}{FP}\times\frac{PM}{MB}\times\frac{BI}{IC}=1$$
Since $\frac{BI}{IC}=\frac{DF}{CF}$, we have
$$\frac{PM}{MB}=\frac{FP}{DF}\tag6$$
By Menelaus's theorem, we get
$$\frac{DJ}{JP}\times\frac{PM}{MB}\times\frac{BG}{GD}=1$$
Since $\frac{BG}{GD}=\frac{CJ}{JD}$, we have
$$\frac{PM}{MB}=\frac{JP}{CJ}\tag7$$
It follows from $(5)(6)(7)$ that
$$JP=FP\tag8$$
It follows from $(5)(8)$ that $P$ is the midpoint of $CD$.
Similarly, we can see that the intersection point of $CM$ with $BD$ is the midpoint of $BD$.
Therefore, we can say that $M$ is the centroid of the triangle $BCD$.
Added :
how do you know in the first proof that $P$ is collinear with $A,A'$ and $B,M$? How do you know that the intersection of $AA'$ with $BM$ is point $P$ which is on $CD$?
Since $A'M\parallel AB$, the line $AA'$ intersects the line $BM$. Let $Q$ be the intersection point of $AA'$ with $BM$. We see that $Q$ is on $\alpha$. We also see that $Q$ is both on the plane $ACD$ and on the plane $BCD$. So, we see that $Q$ is on the line $CD$. It follows that $P=Q$. So, $P$ is both on the line $AA'$ and on the line $BM$.
I read what you wrote forward and saw that you dont think that $BM$ interesects $AA'$ in point $P$
I replaced $K$ with $P$ since $K$ is nothing but $P$.
Can you please explain how you got the following ratios $PA:AA′=PB:MB, PA:AA′=AD:AX$ and $PB:MB=BC:BE$
$PA:AA′=PB:MB$ since $\triangle{PAB}\sim\triangle{PA'M}$.
$PA:AA′=AD:AX$ since $\triangle{AA'X}\sim\triangle{APD}$.
$PB:MB=BC:BE$ since $\triangle{BME}\sim\triangle{BPC}$.