Consider these two sets:
$$ A\equiv \{x\in X: \forall \xi>0 \text{ }\exists N_{\xi, x} \text{ s.t. } \forall N\geq N_{\xi, x} \text{ } d(p_N, I(x))\leq \xi)\}, $$ $$ B\equiv \bigcap_{\xi>0} \bigcup_{N=1}^\infty\bigcap_{K=N}^\infty \{x\in X: d(p_K, I(x))\leq \xi\}, $$ where
- $A$ and $B$ are non-empty.
- $(p_N)_N$ is a sequence of reals taking values in $[0,1]$.
- $I(x)$ is an interval in $(0,1)$.
- $d\big(p_N, I(x) \big):= \inf \big\{|p_N - y| : y \in I(x) \big\}$.
Question: Is $A=B$, $A\subseteq B$, $A\supseteq B$?
Some thoughts:
$A$ is equal to: $$ A= \{x\in X: \lim_{N\rightarrow \infty}d(p_N, I(x))=0)\}, $$ where I use the definition of limit.
$B$ is equal to: $$ B=\bigcap_{\xi>0} \liminf_{N\rightarrow \infty}\{x\in X: d(p_N, I(x))\leq \xi \}= \liminf_{N\rightarrow \infty}\{x\in X: d(p_N, I(x))=0 \} $$ where the first equality comes from the definition of $\liminf$ applied to sets (see here) and the second equality comes from my understanding of some comments given to another questions of mine. However, from the comments below, it seems that this second equality is wrong (any clarification would be welcome here).
So, $A$ has the limit inside, while $B$ outside. Is there any obvious relation between $A$ and $B$, e.g., $B$ is a superset/subset of $A$?