In a previous, and quite popular, question it was discussed about whether or not $\pi$ contains all finite number combinations.
Let us assume for a moment that $\pi$ does in fact contain all finite combinations of numbers. What prevents $\pi$ from also containing all infinite sets?
It seems that at some point one would also see the first couple digits of, for example, $e$ (2.71828). But why does it need to stop there, couldn't it contain a bunch of digits of $e$? Perhaps even an infinite number of digits of $e$?
My understanding is that $e$ could also be replaced by $\sqrt2$ or any other irrational number, so long as that irrational number contained all finite sets of number combinations. Which might imply that somewhere along the way, $e$ contains a number of digits of $\pi$. Implying this ridiculous situation where within $\pi$ we see $e$, and then within $e$ we again begin to see $\pi$ again. Then all the universe collapses into a singularity. Or maybe someone can just explain why one infinite sequence can't contain another infinite sequence, and perhaps why we have not defined some type of super-infinity that can.
To reiterate the primary question: What prevents $\pi$, or other infinite irrational number that contains all finite sets of numbers, from also containing all infinite sets?
1415926...,415926...,15926..., etc, where each one is some "tail" of all the ones before it. But it cannot contain both of two sequences where neither is a tail of the other. – Nate Eldredge Aug 06 '18 at 16:26