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Laplace's spherical harmonics "form a complete set of orthonormal functions and thus form an orthonormal basis of the Hilbert space of square-integrable functions" [1]. I have three related questions about this statement:

(1) I can prove their orthonormality, but how do you prove that they form a complete set?

(2) What does completeness mean for an set with an infinite number of elements?

(3) How does the assertion that the spherical harmonics form an orthonormal basis of the Hilbert space of square-integrable functions follow from their being a complete set of orthornormal functions?

okj
  • 2,569
  • It means that no nonzero vector is orthogonal to all of them; equivalently, it means their span is dense in the $L^2$ norm. 3) The two statements mean the same thing.
  • – Qiaochu Yuan Jul 01 '11 at 12:53
  • @Qiaochu Yuan: So then in order to prove (1) is it sufficient to prove their orthogonality? I.e. since there is no spherical harmonic that is equal to zero for all values of its angular arguments, and all of the spherical harmonics are mutually orthogonal. – okj Jul 01 '11 at 13:01
  • @okj: No, that's not the same statement. That statement is also true for any proper subset of them, whereas Qiaochu's isn't (since the ones in the subset are orthogonal to the ones left out). – joriki Jul 01 '11 at 13:07