2

I found on page 25 of Arthur Besse’s “Einstein Manifolds” that the differential Bianchi identity

$$d^\nabla R^\nabla=0$$

follows from the alternate definition of the Riemann curvature tensor as the second covariant exterior derivative

$$R_{X,Y}^\nabla s = -d^\nabla(d^\nabla s) (X,Y)$$

and the fact that $(d^\nabla\circ d^\nabla)\circ d^\nabla = d^\nabla\circ (d^\nabla\circ d^\nabla)$. However, the proof of the differential Bianchi identity that I know is the one given by Robert Wald on pp. 39 and 40 of his book “General Relativity” and is more involved (in particular, it invokes the algebraic Bianchi identity). How do I see that $d^\nabla R^\nabla=0$ only from $(d^\nabla\circ d^\nabla)\circ d^\nabla = d^\nabla\circ (d^\nabla\circ d^\nabla)$?

Rodrigo
  • 7,996
  • 1
    below you’ve already got an answer. But see also here for some more remarks about dealing with the exterior covariant derivatives (and how it leads also to the algebraic Bianchi identity on the tangent bundle). – peek-a-boo Mar 13 '24 at 20:40

1 Answers1

2

I don't know a lot about Riemannian geometry, I only work on complex manifolds but I believe the idea is the same. A connection is a linear map $d^\nabla : \Omega^k(X,E) \rightarrow \Omega^{k + 1}(X,E)$ that verifies a Leibnitz relation. Here, $E$ is a vector bundle (maybe the tangant bundle in your case ?).

Then, we can prove that $d^\nabla \circ d^\nabla : \Omega^0(X,E) \rightarrow \Omega^2(X,E)$ is $\Omega^0(X,\mathbb{C})$-linear thus there is a unique $R^\nabla \in \Omega^2(X,\mathrm{End}(E))$ such that $d^\nabla(d^\nabla s) = R^\nabla s$ for all section $s$. This is the curvature.

Therefore, by the Leibnitz relation, for all smooth section $s$, $$ d^\nabla(d^\nabla(d^\nabla s)) = d^\nabla(R^\nabla s) = (d^\nabla R^\nabla)s + R^\nabla d^\nabla s = (d^\nabla R^\nabla)s + d^\nabla(d^\nabla(d^\nabla s)). $$ It is true for all $s$ hence $d^\nabla R^\nabla = 0$.

Cactus
  • 9,220