Today I decide to study some topics of Algebra and then faced up with the definition of the direct sum of modules. To let us on the same page, the definition that I'm talking about is
Given a ring $R$ and a family $(M_i)_{i\in I}$ of left $R$-modules, the direct sum of the family $M_i$ to be the set of all sequences $(\alpha_i)$ such that $\alpha_i\in M_i$ and $\alpha_i \neq 0$ for just a finite number of indixes $i\in I$.
I also checked out the definition of the direct product which is basically the same, except the last propertie of $\alpha_i = 0$ for "almost every indixes". My question relies exactly on that propertie. Is there a reason to ask it? Is it demanded just for garantie that the direct sum have a basis? Or exists another readon to justify it. I'm grateful for any help on this subject and I apologize for any error on my english.
Also, this post Why is cofiniteness included in the definition of direct sum of submodules? seems to be the same question, but it doesn't give the answer that I want.