I was learning $L^p$ space from the book $\color{blue}{\textit{Measure Theory (2nd ed.)}}$ written by Donald L. Cohn. In Example 3.3.5, it shows us the crucial dependency of the relationship between $L^p$ spaces on the nature of the measure (Counting measure vs Finite measure).
I was curious about the following statement:
Suppose that $1 ≤ p_1 < p_2 < \infty$. Then each sequence $(a_n)$ that satisfies $\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} |a_n|^{p_1} < \infty$ also satisfies $\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} |a_n|^{p_2} < \infty$.
It might be a subtle problem, but I wonder how to show this convergence statement rigorously. I could understand it a little bit since if $\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} |a_n|^{p_1} < \infty$, then the power of this series should be finite. But I fail to formulate my idea.
Any help or any other idea w.r.t the statement would be appreciated!
