I saw another question similar to this one but I'm not satisfied by answers. Here I changed the question to clearify the point I am interested in. I study Measure Theory for Real & Complex Analysis and I wonder why in the following setting
\begin{equation} \mu: \mathcal{M} \rightarrow \mathbb{C} \end{equation} \begin{equation} \mu(E) = \mu_r(E) + i\mu_i(E) \end{equation}
where $\mu$ is a complex measure and $\mu_r$ & $\mu_i$ are signed measure some writers (like Folland if I remember correctly) does not let $\mu$ to attain at most one of $\infty$ or $-\infty$. In the general definition for signed measures we can let signed measures to attain at most one of the plus or negative $\infty$.
For example, is the following setting not meaningful or not sensible?
\begin{equation} \mu: \mathcal{M} \rightarrow \mathbb{C}\cup \{\infty\} \end{equation} \begin{equation} \mu(E) = \mu_r(E) + i\mu_i(E) \end{equation} where $\mu_r$ & $\mu_i$ are signed measures that does not attain $-\infty$, i.e. they are signed measures which attain values in $\mathbb{R} \cup \infty$, and we defined $\mu(E) = \infty$ whenever $\mu_r = \infty$ or $\mu_i = \infty$. Here I rely on following artihmetical definitions in a formal way:
\begin{equation} a + i\infty = \infty = \infty + ai \end{equation}
where $-\infty$ is not considered.
EDIT: Typo in the last equation.