Consider the following two sequences of reals $$a_n=\frac{1}{n+1}+\cdots +\frac{1}{2n}$$ and $$b_n=\frac{1}{n}$$
Which of the following statement is true?
$1$. $\{a_n\}$ convergent to $log(2)$ and has the same convergent rate as $\{b_n\}$.
$2$. $\{a_n\}$ convergent to $log(4)$ and has the same convergent rate as $\{b_n\}$.
$3$. $\{a_n\}$ convergent to $log(2)$ but does not have the same convergent rate as $\{b_n\}$.
$4.$ $\{a_n\}$ does not converge.
I only know that $a_n$ is convergent to $log(2)$ and $b_n$ to $0$. How about rate of convergent?