I'm reading through the proof of Theorem 1 in Stein's "On limits of sequences of operators", and I'm confused at a step. I'll try to replicate all the parts I think are relevant. At the end of pg. 148 we assume for contradiction that there exists a sequence of functions $(f_n)_{n = 1}^\infty$ in $L^p(M, m)$ (where $M$ is a compact homogeneous space over a compact group $G$ with finite invariant measure $m$, and $1 \leq p \leq 2$) such that $$m(E_n) > n \|f_n\|_p^p ,$$ where $E_n = \left\{ x \in M : T_*f(x) > 1 \right\}$ and $T_* = \sup_n |T_n|$ is the relevant maximal operator. Stein then goes on to claim that we can extract a subsequence, possibly with repetition, for which $\sum_{n = 1}^\infty m(E_n) = \infty$ and $\sum_{n = 1}^\infty \|f_n\|_p^p < \infty$.
My confusion is how to do both of these simultaneously. On one hand, I understand how if I allow repetition, I can choose $n_1 \leq n_2 \leq n_3 \leq \cdots$ going to $\infty$ such that $\sum_{j = 1}^\infty m \left( E_{n_j} \right) = \infty$. Since each term is positive, and I'm allowed to repeat terms. For each $n$, just repeat the term $E_n$ for $\sim 1 / m(E_n)$ terms and I'll contribute $1$ to the sum, and repeat this process to get a divergent sum; in other words, I can make the sum diverge by repeating terms enough times. I also understand that because $\|f_n\|_p^p < m(E_n) / n \leq m(M) / n$, I have that $\|f_n\|_p^p \to 0$, so I can extract a summable subsequence. But by passing to a subsequence, couldn't I accidentally "break" the divergence of $\sum_{n = 1}^\infty m(E_n)$, accidentally passing to a subsequence where that series converges as well?
Would appreciate if anyone can explain this.