The von Neumann-Morgenstern axioms were an attempt to characterize rational decision-making in the presence of risk. The von Neumann-Morgenstern utility theorem says that if someone is vNM-rational, i.e. their preferences obey the axioms, then there exists a function $u$ from the set of outcomes to the real numbers, such that they will have to maximize the expected value of $u$ if they want to abide by their preferences. However, this function is only defined up to a linear transformation, i.e. maximizing the expected value of $u$ and maximizing the expected value of $a + bu$ yield identical results.
Now I have heard from various sources that a social welfare function based on Kaldor-Hicks efficiency can be written as a linear combination of vNM-utility functions, i.e. something of the form $a_1 u_1 + a_2 u_2 + ... a_N u_N$, where $a_i$ is the reciprocal of the $i^{th}$ individual's marginal utility of money. But I don't see how this can make any sense; can't you just rescale each of the $u_i$'s by any amounts you please, since they're only defined up to a linear transformation? Surely $a_1 u_1 + a_2 u_2 + ... a_N u_N$ and $a_1 b_1 u_1 + a_2 b_1 u_2 + ... a_N b_N u_N$ aren't equivalent social welfare functions, since e.g. we can set $b_i = 1/a_i$, thereby taking marginal utility completely out of the function.
So what's going on? What does it mean to say that the coefficients of the linear combination are reciprocals of marginal utilities, when the coefficients can be made into anything you like?
Any help would be greatly appreciated.
Thank You in Advance.
EDIT: Does anyone know where I can find a proof that this social welfare function yields KH-efficiency? Also, I also want to know how this social welfare function should be modified if we don't assume all the von Neumann-Morgenstern axioms, so that utility functions are only defined up to a monotonic transformation, rather than being defined up to a linear transformation.
EDIT 2: I think that @QiaochuYuan's answer may clear up the scaling issue, but what about the additive constant issue? If we change $u_1$ to $u_1 + C_1$, then $a_1 u_1 + a_2 u_2 + ... + a_N u_N + C$ becomes $a_1 u_1 + a_2 u_2 + ... + a_N u_N + C + a_1 C_1$. But doesn't a_1 vary, since we usually have diminishing marginal utility of money? So wouldn't the term $a_1 C_1$ not be a constant? Or does the term $C$ also vary to accomodate that?