$n!\gt 2^{n}$ for $n \geq 4$.
Then there is an inductive proof:
We assume that $n! \gt 2^{n}$ for every random $n \in \mathbb{N}$ with $n\geq4$, and we need to proof that $(n+1)!\gt 2^{n+1}$. Because $(n+1)\gt0$ and $n!\gt2^{n}$, it follows that $(n+1)n!\gt(n+1)2^{n}$. In the left part of the equation we have $(n+1)!$, but in the right part we don't have $2^{n+1}$.
And here comes the part I don't understand:
We want to replace$(n+1)2^{n}$ with $2^{n+1}$, or $n+1$ by $2$. We can do this without any problems, because it is sure that for $n\geq4$ that $n+1\gt2$, and thus that $(n+1)\cdot2^{n}\gt2\cdot2^{n}$
How much I try, I just don't see the connection. So you multiply $n+1\gt2$ by $2^{n+1}$ on both sides, and that makes $(n+1)n!\gt(n+1)2^{n}$ into $(n+1)!\gt2^{n+1}$? I don't see how you can get from $(n+1)2^{n}$ to $2^{n+1}$ with what they're saying. To me, it seems like they're just saying "Hey, because $n+1\gt2$ is greater than $2$, we can just replace it with $2^{n+1}$".
we find $f(3)=-2<0, f(4)=4!-2^4=8>0$
Let $f(n)>0$ for $n=m$
So, $m!>2^m\implies (m+1)\cdot m!>(m+1)2^m>2\cdot2^m=2^{m+1}$
– lab bhattacharjee Aug 25 '13 at 15:45