Let $\Sigma$ be a closed surface in a Riemannian $3$-manifold $(M,g)$. I was thinking about the validity of writing $$\int_\Sigma H^2 d\mu_\Sigma,\tag{1}$$ where $H$ is the mean curvature of $\Sigma$ and $d\mu_\Sigma$ is the Riemannian volume form on $\Sigma$.
My knowledge of integration on manifolds comes from Introduction to Smooth Manifolds written by John M. Lee, and given the formalism in this book, I was wondering if I had to assume that $\Sigma$ is oriented, for (1) to be valid. I asked this question because I had heard in a post that a closed submanifold is automatically oriented, which statement I currently have no idea how to justify. Does this statement come after we first assume $M$ is oriented? Thank you.
Note: A closed manifold is, by convention, a compact manifold without boundary.