As far as I know, the first statement of the correspondence is between two formal theories named simply typed lambda calculus and intuitionistic propositional logic, which maps types to formulas and terms to proofs. We also have other statements for higher order logics and type theories.
But it is also famous to replace the word "term" with "program" when people try to express the correspondence informally (like Wikipedia). I think that if we assume that programs and terms are same things here, then we can conclude that writing a program, which means expressing a program in a possibly Turing-complete language, is actually proving a mathematical theorem intuitionistically (without the use of law of excluded middle and other proof techniques that are banned for an intuitionist!) Is this true?
I think that replacing the word "term" with "program" is misleading here! Because in any statements of the correspondence that I am aware of, we don't have a Turing-complete type theory, and I don't think that type theories are computational models like Turing machines and untyped lambda calculus. Also I think the fact that untyped lambda calculus is equivalent to Turing machine is also misleading to think that a term in a type theory is equivalent to some Turing machine, while as far as I know the equivalence between untyped lambda calculus and Turing machines is not necessarily a bijection, and even if it is, what does it have to do with simply typed lambda calculus?! All in all, don't you think that using the word "program" in the statement is wrong and misleading?