This is related to the well-known unsolved problem in number theory that concerns the distribution of $(3/2)^n \pmod{1}$. This sequence is believed to be uniformly distributed. Has this simpler problem been proven before? I think that it may be done by a simple proof by contradiction, but my main concern is if it has been done before.
The set $A_7$ is $\{1/2, 1/4, 3/8, 1/16, 19/32, 25/64, 11/128\}.$ It seems very intuitive that the lower limit is 0.
To clarify, this question applies to n, where n is a natural number.