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I am trying to find the reproducing kernel Hilbert space induced by the symmetric positive definite (and bounded and measurable) kernel $$ k \colon X \times X \to \{ 0, 1 \}, \qquad (x, y) \mapsto %\delta_{x, y} := \begin{cases} 1, & \text{if } x = y, \\ 0, & \text{if } x \ne y \end{cases}, $$ where $X$ is a uncountably infinite set, e.g. $X = [0, 1]$ or $X = \mathbb R$ (let us assume that $X$ is second countable and equipped with the Borel sigma algebra).

My work so far: The set $H_{\text{pre}} := \text{span}\{ k(x, \cdot): x \in X \}$ becomes an infinite-dimensional inner product space with respect to the inner product $$ \left\langle \sum_{i = 1}^{n} a_i k(x_i, \cdot), \sum_{j = 1}^{m} b_j k(y_j, \cdot) \right\rangle_{H_{\text{pre}}} := \sum_{i = 1}^{n} \sum_{j = 1}^{m} a_i b_j k(x_i, y_j). $$ In order to find the completion of $H_{\text{pre}}$ with respect to this inner product, I want to find $H := \overline{\iota(H_{\text{pre}})}$, where $\iota \colon H_{\text{pre}} \to H_{\text{pre}}^{**}$, $f \mapsto \Lambda_f$ is the canonical injection into the topological bidual space and $\Lambda_f(\Phi) := \Phi(f)$ for $\Phi \in H_{\text{pre}}^*$ (this is mentioned in this answer by Daniel Fisher). The inner product on $\iota(H_{\text{pre}})$ is $\langle \Lambda_f, \Lambda_g \rangle := \langle f, g \rangle_{H_{\text{pre}}}$, where $f, g \in H_{\text{pre}}$, which can be extended by continuity to $H$.

The set $\mathcal B := \{ k(x, \cdot): x \in X \}$ is an orthonormal basis for $H_{\text{pre}}$. In order to find the topological dual space ${H_{\text{pre}}}^*$, I consider the dual set $$ \mathcal B^* := \{ h \mapsto \langle k(x, \cdot), h \rangle_{H_{\text{pre}}}: x \in H_{\text{pre}} \}. $$ If I am not mistaken, $\mathcal B^*$ is also orthonormal. Note that $\langle k(x, \cdot), h \rangle_{H_{\text{pre}}} = h(x)$ for $h \in H_{\text{pre}}$, so that $\mathcal B^* := \{ \text{ev}_x: x \in X \}$, where $\text{ev}_x \colon H_{\text{pre}} \to \mathbb R$, $h \mapsto h(x)$ is the evaluation functional at $x$. Since $\text{ev}_x(k(y, \cdot)) = k(x, y) = \delta_{x, y}$, $(\mathcal B, \mathcal B^*)$ form an biorthogonal system.

Writing $x = \sum_{i = 1}^{n} a_i k(x_i, \cdot) \in H_{\text{pre}}$ and $f = \sum_{j = 1}^{m} b_j \text{ev}_{y_j}$ we have $$ \iota(x)(f) = \sum_{i = 1}^{n} \sum_{j = 1}^{m} a_i b_j k(x_i, y_j). $$

My questions

Is $\mathcal B^*$ a basis of ${H_{\text{pre}}}^*$, that is, is every functional of $H_{\text{pre}}$ a linear combination of evaluation functionals? Is there a neat representation for the RKHS $H$, e.g. $H = \{ \sum_{k = 1}^{\infty} a_k k(x_k, \cdot): (x_k)_{k = 1}^{\infty} \subset X, (a_k)_{k = 1}^{\infty} \in \ell^1 \}$ in the case that $X \subset \mathbb R^d$?


Proof (that $\mathcal B$ is an ONB). For $x, y \in X$ we have $\langle k(x, \cdot), k(y, \cdot) \rangle_{H_{\text{pre}}} = k(x, y) = \delta_{x, y}$. Lastly, $\mathcal B$ is complete: if $\ell \in H_{\text{pre}}$ is in $\mathcal B^{\perp}$, then $\ell(k(x, \cdot)) = 0$ for all $x \in X$ and thus $\ell(f) = 0$ for all $f \in H_{\text{pre}}$. $\square$


By @porridgemathematics's comment we know that $$ H = \left\{ \sum_{k = 1}^{\infty} a_k k(x_k, \cdot): \lim_{n \to \infty} \sup_{p \in \mathbb N_{\ge 0}} \sqrt{\sum_{k = n}^{n + p} a_k^2} = 0 \right\}. $$ Since $p \mapsto \sqrt{\sum_{k = n}^{n + p} a_k^2}$ is non-decreasing, I think we can rewrite the condition as $$ \lim_{n \to \infty} \sqrt{\sum_{k = n}^{\infty} a_k^2} = 0, $$ so $H \subset \ell^2(\mathbb N; X)$ if $X$ is nice enough.

ViktorStein
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  • I wonder whether your initial description of the kernel is what you really mean... since a function on $[0,1]\times[0,1]$ that is $0$ off the diagonal, and $1$ on the diagonal, is almost-everywhere $0$, so gives the $0$ operator... If you're aiming for the identity map in that case, then the kernel is "$\delta(x-y)$", where $\delta$ is more like Dirac's. Can you clarify? – paul garrett Jul 02 '23 at 17:50
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    @paulgarrett Thank you for your comment. You are correct that $k$ is 0 almost everywhere and for $x \in X$, the function $k(x, \cdot)$ is zero almost everywhere (both in the Lebesgue sense). What operator would be the zero operator in my case? Note that since no Lebesgue spaces are involved anywhere, we don't group the functions into equivalence classes of almost everywhere identical functions. If $X$ were instead $\mathbb N$, this kernel would make sense to you and be well- / correctly defined, right? – ViktorStein Jul 02 '23 at 17:54
  • Right, if "the diagonal" had positive measure (of whatever sort), it wouldn't (necessarily) give the $0$ operator... – paul garrett Jul 02 '23 at 18:35
  • Sorry, I meant to refer to the operator given by the (Schwartz) kernel function you've denoted $\delta_{x,y}$, meaning $0$ off the diagonal, and $1$ (??) on the diagonal. – paul garrett Jul 02 '23 at 21:17
  • @paulgarrett. Yes, 1 on the diagonal. I edited the post to make the notation (hopefully) a bit clearer. I've looked a bit in the internet for what you might mean by Schwarz kernel. The map $\mathcal{K}: \phi \mapsto \int_{X} k(\cdot, y) \phi(y) ; \text{d}y$ seems to be the identity, i.e. $\mathcal{K}(\phi)[x] = \phi(x)$. – ViktorStein Jul 02 '23 at 22:36
  • I'm still confused... with your kernel function on $[0,1]\times[0,1]$, all the functions in the corresponding Hilbert space you create are (almost everywhere) $0$. Either I've lost my mind (possible...), or you're not saying quite what you mean? :) – paul garrett Jul 02 '23 at 23:34
  • @paulgarrett Now I understand. I think you are correct about how the Hilbert space $H$ looks like. This post is about proving this statement and I haven't been able to, the problem being that I am not sure which kinds of functions I have to add to $H_{\text{pre}}$ in order to make it complete. – ViktorStein Jul 03 '23 at 00:01
  • @ViktorStein according to this , it seems like $H$ will have elements $\sum_{ i=1}^{\infty} a_i k(x_i,.)$, with $\lim_{n \rightarrow \infty} \sup_{p \geq 0} || \sum_{ i = n}^{n+p} a_i k(x_i,.)||{H{\text{pre}}} = 0$. This condition seems (with your kernel) to just imply the $a_i$ needs to be square summable, i.e. the space should just be $\ell^{2}([0,1])$ in the uncountable, separable metric space case. – porridgemathematics Jul 09 '23 at 06:55
  • @porridgemathematics Thanks for your comment. I think this is a good idea and definitely shows $H \subset \ell^2$. What is the argument for the reverse inclusion? Feel free to formula this as an answer, I will accept it. – ViktorStein Jul 10 '23 at 07:09
  • @ViktorStein If I understood what you mean by the reverse inclusion, I have tried to explain it in an answer. – porridgemathematics Jul 10 '23 at 07:43

3 Answers3

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For the reverse inclusion (see the discussion in comments), I think everything works out by comparison.

That is, we wish to prove that if $(a_i)_{i = 1}^{\infty} \in \ell^2$ then it satisfies $\lim_{n \rightarrow \infty} \sup_{p \geq 0} || \sum_{i=n}^{n+p} a_i k(x_i,.) ||_{H_{\text{pre}}} = 0$.

One has that $\sup_{p \geq 0} ||\sum_{i=n}^{n+p} a_ik(x_i,.)||_{H_{\text{pre}}} = \sup_{p \geq 0} \sqrt{\sum_{i=n}^{n+p} |a_i|^2}$ since $\langle k(x_i,.) , k(x_j,.) \rangle = k(x_i,x_j) = \delta_{ij}$.

Since $(a_i)_{i=1}^{\infty} \in \ell^2$, we necessarily have that $\lim_{n \rightarrow \infty} \sum_{i=n}^{\infty} |a_i|^2 = 0$, i.e. $\lim_{n \rightarrow \infty} \sqrt{\sum_{i=n}^{\infty} |a_i|^2} = 0$ hence:

$\sup_{p \geq 0} \sqrt{ \sum_{i=n}^{n+p} |a_i|^2 }\leq \sqrt{ \sum_{i=n}^{\infty} |a_i|^2}$, and taking limits as $n \rightarrow \infty$ on both sides yields $\lim_{n \rightarrow \infty} \sup_{p \geq 0} || \sum_{i=n}^{n+p} a_i k(x_i,.) ||_{H_{\text{pre}}} = 0$ as desired.

$\textbf{Edit}$: Therefore $H = \{ \sum_{i=1}^{\infty} a_i k(x_i,.) : (a_i)_{i=1}^{\infty} \in \ell^2(\mathbb{N}) ; a_i \neq 0 \forall i ; (x_i)_{i=1}^{\infty} \text{ any distinct sequence in } X \}$, which are all the square summable (i.e. square integrable with respect to the counting measure on $X$) functions $f : X \rightarrow \mathbb{C}$, i.e. $H = \ell^2(X)$

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The attempt in the question as well as the answers seem to obscure the main point a bit (in part because the Wikipedia page does not have the best exposition). In particular, $\lim_{n\to\infty}\sup_{p\in\mathbb N_0}\sqrt{\sum_{k=n}^{n+p}a_k^2}=0$ is just a complicated way of writing $\sum_{k=1}^\infty a_k^2<\infty$.

In general, the RKHS induced by the kernel $k$ is the completion of $\{\sum_x f(x) k(x,\cdot)\mid f\in c_c(X)\}$ with respect to the inner product given by $$ \left\langle\sum_x f(x)k(x,\cdot),\sum_y g(y)k(y,\cdot)\right\rangle=\sum_{x,y}k(x,y)f(x)g(y). $$ Here $c_c(X)$ denotes the set of all finitely supported functions from $X$ to $\mathbb R$.

In the example from the question, $k(x,\cdot)=1_x$ and thus $\sum_x f(x)k(x,\cdot)=f$. Thus the RKHS $H$ is the completion of $c_c(X)$ with respect to the inner product $\langle f,g\rangle=\sum_x f(x)g(x)$. Hence $H$ is contained in $\ell^2(X)=\{f\colon X\to\mathbb R\mid \sum_x f(x)^2<\infty\}$, and since $c_c(X)$ is dense in $\ell^2(X)$, it coincides with $\ell^2(X)$.

MaoWao
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Suppose $h_n = \sum_{i=1}^{\infty} a_{n x_{ni}} K(x_{ni},:)$ with$ \sum_{i = 1}^{\infty} (a_{n x_{ni}})^2 < \infty$ is a cauchy sequence then

$||h_n - h_m|| \leq \epsilon$ for all $n,m \geq N$

Let $S = \cup_n \{(x_{ni}): i\}$. The set $S$ is countable. If $x \in S$ does not appear in $\{x_{ni} : i\}$, we set $a_{nx} = 0$.

Hence, $$||h_n - h_m|| = \sum_{x \in S} (a_{nx} - a_{mx})^2 \leq \epsilon$$

We also have $||h_n|| < \infty \implies \sum_{x \in S} (a_{nx})^2 < \infty$.

Hence, $(a_nx : x \in S)$ is a cauchy $\ell_2$ sequence and completeness follows from completeness of $\ell_2$. Let $(a_{nx} : x \in S) \rightarrow (b_x: x \in S)$

Hence $\lim_n h_n = \sum_{x \in S} b_x K(x,:)$.

Hence as other answer pointed out the space: $H = \{\sum_{x \in S} b_x K(x,:), S \ countable, (b_x : x \in S) \in \ell_2\}$ is a complete space and is the smallest complete space containing $H_{pre}$.

Let Assuming you are looking at continuous linear functionals in $H^*$, we have $L \in H^*$ implies $L(f) = <\phi_L,f>$ for a unique $\phi_L \in H$ and for every $f \in H$ by Riesz Representation theorem.

let $f(.) = \sum_i a_i K(x_i,:)$, $\phi_L(.) = \sum_i b_i K(y_i,:)$.

$L(f) = <\sum_i b_i K(y_i,:), \sum_i a_i K(x_i,:)> = \sum_{i,j} a_i b_j K(x_i,y_j)$

and

$\phi_L(.) = \sum_i b_i ev_{y_i}$.

Let $\hat{B} = \{\sum_{x \in S} b_x ev_x, S \ countable, (b_x : x \in S) \in \ell_2\}$.

Hence $\mathcal{\hat{B}}^* = H^*$ as a consequence of Riesz Representation theorem.

But since $H_{pre}$ is not complete, Riesz Representation theorem may not apply in full strength. Look into Riesz representation theorem on where completeness is getting used and then decide.

Note that, $\mathcal{\hat{B}}^* = H^* \subseteq H_{pre}^*$. Hence you have lot more elements than finite linear combination of elements in $\mathcal{B}^*$.

Cheers !

  • Thank you for your answer. Unfortunately, I don't understand your definition of $S$. You seem to take the union over the sets $S_i := { (x_{n i}): i }$ for all $n$, but what is $S_i$. Is it just $S_i = (x_{n i}){i \in \mathbb N}$? And do you really mean $n i$ as in multiplication of two integers or rather $n_i$? And by $a{n x_{n i}}$ do you really mean $a_{n, x_{n_i}}$? – ViktorStein Jul 10 '23 at 16:05
  • yes you are correct $x_{n,i}$ and $a_{n,x_{n_i}}$ and $S_n = (x_{n,i}: i \in \mathbb{N})$ –  Jul 10 '23 at 16:21
  • $S=\cup_{n=1}^{\infty} S_n$ –  Jul 11 '23 at 02:16