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Consider a function $f$ that is strictly concave and differentiable on $\mathbb{R}_{+}$ such that $f(0)=0$. I would like to show that $\frac{f(x)}{x}$ is strictly decreasing in $\mathbb{R}_{+}^{*}$

Here is my attempt : since $f(x)$ is strictly concave we know that for all $x,y\in\mathbb{R}_{+}$ we have

$$ x\neq y \implies f(y) - f(x) > f'(y)(y-x) $$

and taking $x=0$ we get $\frac{f(y)}{y}> f'(y)$ for all $y\in\mathbb{R}_{+}^{*}$ but I don't see how to continue (if it is the right way) ? I would like to use the fact that $f'(y)$ is strictly decreasing but as far as I know I can just write that

$$ x>y \implies \frac{f(y)}{y}> f'(y) > f'(x) $$

Thank you a lot !

G2MWF
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    See https://math.stackexchange.com/q/3830953/42969 and https://math.stackexchange.com/q/164827/42969 – Martin R Jun 18 '23 at 16:29

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The derivative of $f/x$ is $$\frac{f'x-f}{x^2}, $$ since $$\frac{f(x)}{x}>f'(x), $$ the derivative is always negative so $f(x) /x$ is strictly decreasing.