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In this question for example, Divergence-free vector field on a 2-sphere., divergence free vector field on a 2-sphere is shown to be infinite-dimenaional as each $X_h$ is associated with a smooth scalar function $h$.

However, using the direct formula of divergence I got contradiction. Let me specialize to axisymmetric case, i.e. the divergence-free vector field $X$ and everything is only function of $\theta$. $$div(X) = \frac{1}{\sqrt{\sigma}}\partial_\theta (\sqrt{\sigma}X^\theta)=\frac{1}{\sqrt{\sigma}}\partial_\theta (PQ\sin\theta X^\theta)= $$ where I used that axisymmetric metric should be of form $\sigma=P(\theta)^2d\theta^2 + Q(\theta)^2 \sin^2\theta d\phi^2$. Note $\sin\theta=0$ at $\theta=0,\pi$ and $P,Q$ should not vanish anywhere; thus $PQ\sin\theta X^\theta\equiv 0$ and hence $X^\theta\equiv0$! Only trivial divergence vector field is obtained.

Can anyone point our where I could got wrong?

Bowen Zhao
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  • The divergence depends on the metric. If you change the metric, you change the divergence operator, and thus its properties such as its kernel – Didier Jun 03 '23 at 11:16
  • @Didier Thanks! You are suggesting that there is no mistake in my computation with the assumed metric but that divergence-free vector field has to vanish is only a property of this axisymmetric metric? – Bowen Zhao Jun 04 '23 at 02:44

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I think the problem arises because you use the polar angle $\theta$ as a dummy index for the summation in your divergence formula. Another problem I see is that in polar coordinates neither a vector field, nor its divergence can be defined at the poles because the azimuth $\varphi$ is not defined there.

From scratch:

In polar coordinates the natural metric on the two-sphere is, as we know, $$ g_{ij}=\begin{pmatrix}1&0\\0&\sin^2\theta\end{pmatrix} $$ where $\theta\in[0,\pi]$ is the polar angle. It sounds like you have in mind a more general axisymmetric metric $$ \sigma_{ij}=\begin{pmatrix}p^2(\theta)&0\\0&q^2(\theta)\sin^2\theta\end{pmatrix}\,. $$ The divergence of a vector field $$ X=\begin{pmatrix}X^\theta\\ X^\varphi\end{pmatrix} $$ is then \begin{align} \operatorname{div}X&=\frac{\partial_\theta(\sqrt{\det\sigma}X^\theta)+\color{red}{\partial_\varphi(\sqrt{\det\sigma}X^\varphi)}}{\sqrt{\det\sigma}}\\[2mm] &=\frac{1}{p(\theta)q(\theta)\sin\theta}\Big\{\partial_\theta\big(p(\theta)q(\theta)\sin\theta X^\theta\big)+\partial_\varphi\big(p(\theta)q(\theta)\sin\theta X^\varphi\big)\Big\}\\[2mm] &=\frac{\partial_\theta(p(\theta)q(\theta)\sin\theta)}{p(\theta)q(\theta)\sin\theta}X^\theta+\partial_\theta X^\theta+\partial_\varphi X^\varphi\\[2mm] &=\partial_\theta\Big(\log (p(\theta)q(\theta)\sin\theta)\Big)X^\theta+\partial_\theta X^\theta+\partial_\varphi X^\varphi\,. \end{align} When $p\equiv q\equiv 1$ (natural metric) this simplifies to $$ \operatorname{div}X=\cot\theta\,X^\theta+\partial_\theta X^\theta+\partial_\varphi X^\varphi\,. $$ An obvious example of a non-zero vector field whose divergence vanishes away from the poles is $$ X=\begin{pmatrix}1\\ -\varphi\cot\theta\end{pmatrix}\,. $$ This $X$ is however not continuous at $\varphi=0$ because $\varphi\in[0,2\pi)$ and the limit from the "left" of $X^\varphi=-\varphi\cot\theta$ at $\varphi=0$ is $-2\pi\cot\theta\,.$

A continuous example is $$ X=\begin{pmatrix}\frac{1}{\sin\theta}\\ c\end{pmatrix} $$ where $c$ is an arbitrary constant. The divergence is zero because $$ \partial_\theta X^\theta=-\frac{\cos\theta}{\sin^2\theta}=-\cot\theta X^\theta\,. $$ This $X$ however does not have removable coordinate singularities at the poles because there it blows up.

Kurt G.
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  • Thanks! So two things going on. First, I neglected $X^\phi$ which is on purpose actually (somehow for axisymmetry). Second, I'm more concerned with point that you made "in polar coordinates neither a vector field, nor its divergence can be defined at the poles because the azimuth is not defined there." Can you elaborate on how should one handle this then? For example, in your solution, setting $X^\phi=0$, one would have $X^\theta=\frac{1}{\sin\theta}$. Then $X$ blows up at the poles so not really allowed. If one demands the vector field to be smooth, then $X\equiv0$? – Bowen Zhao Jun 04 '23 at 09:01
  • According to the nice post you linked there exist many non vanishing smooth vector fields on all of $S^2$ with div $X=0,.$ Polar coordinates are useful but -as we see- they have their limitations. – Kurt G. Jun 04 '23 at 17:50