Why does an admissible control need to be measurable?

Asked May 23 '23 at 09:25

Active May 23 '23 at 09:32

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I am reviewing some literature on controlling SIR models. I have come across the following article

where the authors wrote that their control should be measurable to be admissible, and I don't quite get why. Can somebody please enlighten me?

edited May 23 '23 at 09:32

asked May 23 '23 at 09:25

CHOSM

3

Can you think of a non-measurable control input? – Rodrigo de Azevedo May 23 '23 at 09:35
I'm not able to link the mathematical definition of measurable functions with this. Can you help me figure it out? – CHOSM May 23 '23 at 09:38
Take a look at this – Rodrigo de Azevedo May 23 '23 at 09:44

0 Answers0