To build up on the Lutz Lehmann's answer, the map $\Phi:\theta\mapsto \sin^2(\pi\theta)$ exhibits the logistic map $L:x\mapsto 4x(1-x)$ as a $2:1$ factor of the doubling map $E: \theta\mapsto 2\theta \mod1$. This latter map has (exactly) $8-2=6$ points of period $3$, hence the logistic map $L$ has at least $3$ points of period $3$, that is, at least one $3$-cycle ($\dagger$). Here is a cobweb diagram exhibiting the cycle given by the semiconjugacy $\Phi$:

(The interactive graph is available at: https://www.desmos.com/calculator/ucr4tj7zdq)
($\dagger$) In an earlier version of this answer I had claimed that the logistic map $L$ has exactly one $3$-cycle; as David pointed out in a comment this is false. The true statement is that $L$ has exactly two $3$-cycles:


(The first cycle is the one discussed already. The interactive graph is available at: https://www.desmos.com/calculator/mk3qfhibgb)
The error in the previous version of my answer stemmed from assuming that any $3$-periodic point of $L$ must be the image of a $3$-periodic point of the doubling map $E$ under the semiconjugacy $\Phi$. In reality $(\dagger\dagger)$ we have that if $\theta$ is a point with
$$\Phi\circ E(\theta) = \Phi(\theta), \quad\quad(\star)$$
then $\Phi(\theta)$ is a fixed point of $f^3$, and indeed any fixed point of $f^3$ is of the form $\Phi(\theta)$ for such a $\theta$. Expanding $(\star)$, for numerical values of initial conditions for $3$-cycles $\theta$ is required to solve one of the two analytic equations
$$\sum_{n\in\mathbb{Z}_{\geq0}}\dfrac{(-1)^n(8^{2n+1}\pm 1)\pi^{2n+1}}{(2n+1)!}\theta^{2n+1}=0.$$
There are various methods that approximate zeros of analytic equations; but for the sake of this discussion it seems it's sufficient to refer to graphs (of concatenations); indeed the interactive graph at https://www.desmos.com/calculator/mwbq9gpc5d does count the distinct initial conditions for $3$-cycles accurately. (Once the existence of a cycle is established, one can also use the cobweb diagrams to find numerical values.)
$(\dagger\dagger)$ More generally if $X,Y$ are compact metric spaces and $f:X\to X$, $g:Y\to Y$, $\Phi:X\to Y$ are continuous maps with $\Phi$ onto and $\Phi\circ f=g\circ \Phi$, then
$$\{x\in X | \Phi\circ f(x)=\Phi(x)\} = \Phi^{-1}(\text{Fix}(g)).$$