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The volume of an $n$-ball of radius $1$ is $$V_{n}={\frac {\pi ^{n/2}}{\Gamma {\bigl (}{\tfrac {n}{2}}+1{\bigr )}}}.$$

The functional equation of Riemann zeta function is $${\displaystyle \pi ^{-{s \over 2}}\Gamma \left({s \over 2}\right)\zeta (s)=\pi ^{-{1 \over 2}+{s \over 2}}\Gamma \left({1 \over 2}-{s \over 2}\right)\zeta (1-s)}.$$

Combining the two equalities and replacing the Zeta function with Bernoulli numbers (generalized to negative orders), using the formula $B^+_n=-n\zeta(1-n)$ we get:

$$V_n B^+_n=V_{1-n}B^+_{1-n}.$$

In terms of umbral calculus, denoting the index-lowering operator as $\operatorname{eval}$, we get:

$$\operatorname{eval} V_n (B+1)^n=\operatorname{eval} V_{1-n}(B+1)^{1-n}$$

What does this intuitively mean? We have expressions of volumes of n-balls with radius of Bernoulli umbra (plus 1). What could it even mean intuitively?

Anixx
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    Too soon. Please wait a while, for instance a few days, before cross-posting. You've done this at least twice today... – theHigherGeometer Jan 28 '23 at 09:34
  • Re-crossed posted after a wait of several months https://mathoverflow.net/questions/445428/whats-the-meaning-of-this-relation-between-volumes-of-n-balls-and-umbral-calc (that's definitely a decent wait...) – theHigherGeometer Oct 03 '23 at 05:56

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