The question is posed as 'a' diagram. In this case, given a mono $f : X \to Y$ and parallel arrows $g, h : Y \to Z$, we would have the freedom to choose $Z = Y$ and $h = \text{id}_Y$. This would make things a lot easier, because then we would have $g \circ f = f$ and we only have to prove that for any set $W$ and any function $w : W \to Y$ satisfying $g \circ w = \text{id}_Y \circ w = w$, there exists a unique $s : W \to X$ such that $f \circ s = w$? Uniqueness of $s$ then readily follows from $f$ being mono.
I haven't proved the existence of such an $s$ yet, and in another post on seemingly the same topic (but in jargon I could not read), they were talking about pullbacks.
So the second question is: can this even be solved without pullbacks, or will they in some way ultimately be involved?
Cheers!