I’m using the following definition of algebraic independence:
If $K \subset L$ is a field extension, and $(\alpha_i)_{i\in I}$ is a subset of elements of $L$, we say that the subset $(\alpha_i)_{i\in I}$ is algebraically independent if the $K$-algebras homomorphism $K[(x_i)_{i\in I}]\rightarrow L$ such that $x_i \mapsto \alpha_i$ is injective.
Here, if I understand correctly, $K[(x_i)_{i\in I}]$ is the polynomial ring over $(x_i)_{i\in I}$. Please correct me if I’m wrong.
I also know that $(a,b)$ being algebraically independent over $K$ doesn’t follow in general from $a$ and $b$ being algebraically independent over $K$ (counterexemple taken from Wikipedia: $a=\sqrt{\pi}$, $b=2\pi+1$). However, I’d like to prove that $(a,b)$ is algebraically independent over $K$ iff $a$ is algebraically independent over $K$ and $b$ is algebraically independent over $K(a)$ (the statement is given without proof on my lecture notes).
I guess if $(a,b)$ is algebraically independent over $K$, then this means by definition that the morphism $K[x_1,x_2] \rightarrow L$ is injective, and then it’s restriction $K[x_1] \rightarrow L$ is injective too. Then $a$ is algebraically independent over $K$. We should see now that the morphism $K(a)[x_2] \rightarrow L$ such that $x_2 \mapsto b$ is injective too, but I’m not really sure how to do that.
For the other direction, I don’t really know what to attempt. Any help would be appreciated.