My textbook is A Mathematical Introduction to Logic, 2nd Edition by Enderton.
The question initially comes when I was trying to prove Exercise 4. on pg.99
$$\text{Show that if }x \text{ does not occur free in }\alpha,\text{ then }\alpha \vDash \forall x \alpha$$
One of the lines in the proof, which as I worked out is:
the assignment functions $s$ and $s(x|d)$ agree on any variable but $x$, since $x$ does not occur free in $\alpha,$ hence $$\vDash_\mathfrak{U} \alpha[s] \Leftrightarrow \vDash_{\mathfrak{U}}\alpha[s(x|d)]$$
Then, I referred back to Theorem 22A, which states: Assume $s_1,s_2$ are assignment functions from $V$ into $\mathfrak{U}$ which agree at all variables (if any) that occur free in the wff $\phi$. Then $$\vDash_{\mathfrak{U}} \phi[s_1] \Leftrightarrow \vDash_{\mathfrak{U}} \phi[s_2]$$
My question is that why only free variables are enough? Why don't we need to impose the agreement on the bound variables of $s_1,s_2$?
The proof of this theorem uses induction, where the inductive hypothesis simply states the agreement on free variables rather than telling the intuition behind it.
I attempted to answer my own question, but when it comes to discerning the difference between free and bound variables, the sentence 'a bound variable is a variable that's being quantified' feels incomplete, could you please provide richer insights to this?
Also, this question is closely related to the post: Show that if $x$ does not occur free in $α$, then $α \vDash ∀ x α$.