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Update/Partial Answer (see edit history for original post)

After reading comments, checking the linked post, and working on the problem a bit more, I realized that there is a straightforward definition for tangents of open sets (of Euclidean $n$-space) which does not require any kind of differential structure. This occurred to me when I noticed that the sets David K mentioned for which the line intersecting a set at exactly one point is a tangent line happen to be convex sets.

Here's what I've come up with:

Definition (convex set): Let $U\subseteq\Bbb R^n$. $U$ is convex if and only if for every line $L\subset\Bbb R^n$, the intersection $U\cap L$ is connected (w.r.t. the Euclidean subspace topology on $U$.)

Note: "line" is treated as primitive. As such, every model of geometry (assumed to be an incidence structure, for the time being) has different convex sets. This is where the interplay between the geometry and topology becomes important: the same topological space can have more than one geometry defined on it. In what follows, we will need both a topology and a geometry in order to define "tangentness."

Definition (exterior tangent of a convex open set): Let $U\subseteq\Bbb R^n$ be a convex open set. Call $V\subseteq\Bbb R^n$ an exterior tangent of $U$ if and only if $\emptyset\subset\overline U\cap V\subseteq \partial U$. (Alternatively, $V$ is tangent to $\overline U$; this is a matter of convention, pick whichever one is most standard.)

Definition (interior and exterior tangent of an open set): Let $U\subseteq\Bbb R^n$ be an open set and $V\subseteq\Bbb R^n$. Call $V$ an exterior tangent of $U$ if and only if there exists a convex open set $S\subseteq U$ such that $\emptyset\subset \overline S\cap V=\overline U\cap V\subseteq \partial U$.

(continued) We call $V$ an interior tangent of $U$ if and only if it is an exterior tangent of $\overline U^\complement$.

Definition (tangent of an open set): Let $U\subseteq\Bbb R^n$ be an open set. A set $V$ is tangent to $U$ if and only if it is an exterior tangent or interior tangent of $U$.

From here, we naturally get tangent lines, planes, hyperplanes, etc. by way of "a tangent line is a tangent that is also a line," "a tangent plane is a tangent that is also a plane," etc. - with each of these ("line," "plane," etc.) being defined by the geometry on $\Bbb R^n$.

We also get "point of tangency" - and "set of tangency" when the tangent is coincident with the boundary at multiple points - in an obvious.


From here, I have two new questions:

  1. Does the above definition work? If so, can it be refined?

It seems obvious to me that the set of "tangents" of a given set, as defined above, is inclusive of conventional tangent spaces (along with some other stuff.) Are there sets satisfying the above criteria which are definitively not tangent? (see note for additional clarification)

  1. How do we extend this notion of "tangentness" to non-open sets?

The suggested definition leads to a clear distinction between two kinds of tangency: there are the tangents of open sets, which I have defined above, and the tangents of... not open sets. As an example of the latter kind of tangency, consider a tangent line to surface $S\subset\Bbb R^n$, with $n>2$. Obviously $S$ is not an open set, so the definition does not apply. To make matters worse, even if $S$ were an open set, there are many cases in which $\partial S=\emptyset$ where we still want $S$ to have tangents.

In the case that $S$ is instead the boundary of some open set $U$, we might get away with saying that "$V$ is tangent to $S$ iff $V$ is tangent to $U$" - for example "for any differentiable function $f:\Bbb R\to\Bbb R$, the line $T_pC=\{(x,y)\in\Bbb R^2:f'(p)(x-p)=y-f(p)\}$ is tangent to the curve $C=\{(x,y):y=f(x)\}$ at the point $(p,f(p))$ because $T_pC$ is tangent to the open set $\{(x,y)\in\Bbb R^2:y<f(x)\}$ at $(p,f(p))$." - but the existence of enumerable "wild and wacky manifolds from the nightmare realm" makes me reluctant to suppose that every set with tangents is the boundary of an open set.


Note: assuming the Euclidean topology and geometry, the suggested definition of tangent includes sets which are not "differentiable" in any meaningful sense and/or which intersect the boundary of the open set at an angle. For example, the curve $C=\{(x,y)\in\Bbb R^2:y=\vert x\vert\}$ would be tangent to the $(0,-1)$-centered open disk of radius $1$ at the origin. I don't see this as a problem, since we need only specify "tangent line" or "smooth tangent curve" or "tangent curve that has a derivative at the point of tangency whose derivative at that point is equal to the derivative of the boundary of the set to which it is tangent at the point of tangency" to get back to analysis-land. I'm more worried about a line which intersects a sphere being "tangent" to the sphere because I missed something.

R. Burton
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    The “circularity” you are concerned with seems to be a confounding of motivation and definition. We have an intuitive idea of what a tangent line/plane/hyperplane should be, and we make a rigorous definition in terms of the derivative that matches this intuition fairly well. – David K Dec 04 '22 at 21:40
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    @DavidK Even so, there are intuitive cases of tangents which cannot be defined in terms of derivatives - this was addressed in the body of the question. Consider the plane tangent to two spheres which intersect at exactly one point. – R. Burton Dec 04 '22 at 22:04
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    There is no canonical notion, you can find two commonly used notions of tangent cones here. – Moishe Kohan Dec 04 '22 at 22:51
  • There is certainly a plane through the intersection point tangent to both spheres according to derivatives, which corresponds well with the intuitive reasoning. – David K Dec 04 '22 at 23:01
  • @DavidK Perhaps I should have said "cannot be defined in terms of derivatives in the obvious way." I suppose that considered as a non-orientable surface immersed in $\Bbb R^3$ we can talk about tangent vectors at the point of intersection. But if we're changing the topology, then we're changing the rules of the game. At some point "derivative" starts to mean "whatever I want it to mean as long as long as we're consistent." I'm trying to avoid getting to that point. That's why I didn't tag this as "differential geometry." Unless you mean something else? – R. Burton Dec 05 '22 at 00:10
  • One problem as I see it is that elementary definition of "tangent" that says that a line is tangent to a surface $U$ if it intersects in exactly one point is good for ellipses and ellipsoids, but not for a simple cubic plotted by $y=x^3$ or even for a parabola. It's not clear to me how we define a tangent plane a surface that is the union of your two spheres in such a way that explains why we still have a tangent through the common point of the two spheres, but we don't have a tangent plane through the apex of a double cone. – David K Dec 05 '22 at 00:15
  • On the other hand toward the end of your question you seem to be very close to defining a tangent space via derivatives in the usual way. But I think you get a cleaner approach if you don't rely on directional derivatives. – David K Dec 05 '22 at 00:16
  • So $\partial U$ would always be an exterior tangent of a convex open $U$. Does this make sense? – Paul Frost Dec 07 '22 at 01:06
  • I’m voting to close this question because the concept of "tangent" presented here has nothing to do with the standard understanding of what a tangent should be. Of course one is free to generalize concepts, but one should not use standard terminology for something with a completely different intention. I do not claim that the question does not make sense or is uninteresting, but it is notational misleading. – Paul Frost Dec 07 '22 at 12:18
  • @PaulFrost "So $\partial U$ would always be an exterior tangent?" That makes sense to me. In a way, the boundary is the most tangent set. "The concept of tangent presented here has nothing to do with the standard understanding of what a tangent should be." See the note: to recover the standard notion of "tangent" just add lines, everything else follows (unless I'm just wrong, which is very possible.) – R. Burton Dec 07 '22 at 12:40

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