$B$ is a ring and $A$ is a subring of $B$.
Atiyah's proposition $5.1$ says that the following statements are equivalent.
1- $x \in B$ is integral over $A$
2-$A[x]$ is finitely generated $A$-module
3-$A[x]$ is contained in a subring $C$ of $B$ such that $C$ is a finitely generated $A-$module
4-There exists a faithful $A[x]-$module $M$ which is a finitely generated as an $A-$module.
Being finitely generated $A$ module implies the existence of a finite generating set $\{ x_1, x_2...\dots x_n\}$ and then we write the $$sx_i= \sum_{j=1}^{n} a_{ij}x_j$$ and then $$0= \sum_{j=1}^{n} (\delta_{ij} -x_i )a_{ij}x_j$$
Then I will get a matrix equation $Bx=0$ and multiplication by the adjoint of matrix $B$, I get $\operatorname{det}(B)(x_j)=0$ and hence $$\operatorname{det}(B)=\operatorname{det}(B)\cdot (1)=\sum_j \operatorname{det}(B) a_j x_j=0$$ and thus we have the integral equation $\operatorname{det}(B)$ for $x$.
Here are my questions
1-Where are we using the faithfulness of the $A[x]$ module in the implication $4) \rightarrow (1)$.
(2)-Also can I have a counterexample to see why it is necessary?
(3)-Since $x_i$ are a generating set, then sure the $x_i$'s are non-zero. Then the system of equations $Bx=0$ doesn't have a unique solution. Hence the matrix $B$ is not invertible. Hence $\operatorname{det}(B) \neq 0$. Is this proof also valid. If yes, then why none of the texts has presented this basic/easy proof?