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For example, why can't it be a definition of the limit?

$$\lim_{x \to a}f(x)=l\Leftrightarrow( \forall \delta> 0,\exists\varepsilon > 0:|f(x)-l|<\varepsilon \Rightarrow|x-a|<\delta ) $$

George
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  • Your definition is wrong. 2) In what you wrote, $\delta $ is independent of $\varepsilon $ however, $\varepsilon $ depend on $\delta $.
  • – Surb Oct 16 '22 at 09:20
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    I voted to close because such a question begining with "Why" appeals opinion-based answers. (I understood the question as: "Why was not the proposed "non-definition" chosen, instead of the (hopefully obviously non-equivalent) traditional one?"). I hesitated to flag it as a "very low quality question", i.e. unlikely to be salvageable through editing hence to be removed. – Anne Bauval Oct 16 '22 at 09:25
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    I upvoted because the question is a profound one. The OP (i.e. original poster) is attempting to expand his intuition. Personally, I consider intuition to be critically necessary in the study of Mathematics. – user2661923 Oct 16 '22 at 09:39
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    Note that if you take $f(x) = x^2$, by your definition $\lim\limits_{x \to 2} f(x) = 4$ does not hold because not only does neighborhood of $2$ on the x-axis maps to neighborhood of $4$ but also neighborhood of $-2$. So $f(x)=x^2$ being close to $l=4$ does not imply $x$ being close to $a=2$ – Lab Oct 16 '22 at 09:42
  • This question about changing the roles of $\varepsilon$ and $\delta$ in the definition of a limit is likely of interest. – Andrew D. Hwang Oct 16 '22 at 12:30
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    @AnneBauval There are ~ 250,000 why-questions. – Paul Frost Oct 16 '22 at 12:30