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$\frac{dy}{dx}=-y^\frac{1}{3} $ and $y(0)=0 $.

Then this Initial value problem has

a) unique solution

b) infinity many solution

c) No solution

My apporach: Take $y= (-\frac{2}{3}(x-a))^\frac{3}{2}$ if $x\leq a$

And $y=0$ if $x\geq a$ Where a is any negative real no. It satisfy Initial condition. It have infinitely many solution for Infinitely many choice of a. So IVP has infinitely many solution.

Is my approach correct?

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