$\frac{dy}{dx}=-y^\frac{1}{3} $ and $y(0)=0 $.
Then this Initial value problem has
a) unique solution
b) infinity many solution
c) No solution
My apporach: Take $y= (-\frac{2}{3}(x-a))^\frac{3}{2}$ if $x\leq a$
And $y=0$ if $x\geq a$ Where a is any negative real no. It satisfy Initial condition. It have infinitely many solution for Infinitely many choice of a. So IVP has infinitely many solution.
Is my approach correct?