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This post was helpful in understanding what retracts are but I am still confused on why one would wish to study them. I think it would be helpful if it could be said how the concept originally emerged.

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Here is why I think retracts are useful: consider an injective map $f : X\to Y$ between spaces. Since this map is injective, it's a natural question to ask if the induced map $f_* : \pi_1(X) \to \pi_1(Y)$ is also injective. This seems reasonable, but in fact it's not true! Consider for instance the embedding $i : S^1 \hookrightarrow D^2$. This map is injective but clearly $f_* : \pi_1(S^1)\cong\mathbb{Z} \to 0\cong\pi_1(D^2)$ is not.

The reason that this didn't work is that even though $i$ is injective, it does not have a continuous left-inverse $r : D^2 \to S^1$, since $S^1$ is not a retract of $D^2$ (intuitively, you would have to punch a hole through the $D^2$, which destroys continuity).

However, if we have a retract $r : X \to A$ for some injection $i : A \hookrightarrow X$, then this means in particular that $r$ is continuous, i.e. a morphism in the category of topological spaces. This will allow us to use functoriality of $\pi_1$, namely we see that the composition $$ \pi_1(A) \xrightarrow{i_*} \pi_1(X) \xrightarrow{r_*} \pi_1(A) $$ is the same as $\text{id}_{\pi_1(A)}$, since $$ r_* \circ i_* = (r \circ i)_* = (\text{id}_A)_* = \text{id}_{\pi_1(A)}. $$ Thus we have shown that the homomorphism $i_*$ has a left-inverse, i.e. $i_*$ is indeed injective now. Of course the same result holds for any other covariant functor, such as homology $H_n(-; \mathbb{Z})$, which will be useful later. Do you see what happens when we use a contravariant functor?

In my opinion this is a neat result, because it's always nice when properties translate when you jump between different categories. I hope this was helpful!

jasnee
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Here is just one answer: it is more algebraic, from the perspective of "we care about the simplest things the most," rather than "we care about things that give interesting geometric data."


jasnee is correct in that retracts have a special role in algebraic topology, but that special role is actually a symptom of a more general, categorical reason.

A helpful fact of set theory that most students learn is that a function $f$ is injective if and only if it has a left inverse; i.e., there is some other function $g$ so that $gf = \text{id}$. We can pull this definition back to a categorical notion: we define a retract to be a left inverse of some morphism $m$. It is short but worthwhile to prove that in $\mathsf{Set}$, a morphism is given by an injective map if and only if it has a retract. There are very few simpler structures in a category than inverses of morphisms, so categorical retracts are in themselves a fundamental notion.

One reason why we care about topological retracts is because it is a "geometrization" of this fundamental notion. Indeed, if we work in $\mathsf{Top}$, then morphisms carry with them geometric meaning, as continuous maps induce topologies. The crux of this discussion is the following:

A topological retract $X \to A$ is the categorical retract of the inclusion map $A \hookrightarrow X$.

Hence this geometric notion of "deforming a space to a subspace" is really just a topological interpretation of a fundamental notion, so it's bound to crop up as a point of study.

This also explains why we like retracts for algebraic topology; because of the functoriality of $\pi_1$, it follows that a topological retract induces a group-theoretic retract of the group homomorphism $\pi_1(A) \hookrightarrow \pi_1(X)$.

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One way to learn the usefulness of a mathematical concept is to see how it is used (I suppose that is a tautology?).

Here is perhaps one of the most striking application of retracts that a first year algebraic topology student learns.

Brouwer fixed point theorem: Every continuous function $f : B^n \to B^n$ has a fixed point.

Outline of the proof:

  • Step 1: If $f$ does not have a fixed point then one may use $f$ to construct a topological retract $r : B^n \to S^{n-1}=\partial B_n$.
  • Step 2: By applying the $n^{\text{th}}$ homology functor one obtains an abelian groups retract $r_* : H_{n-1}(B^n) \to H_{n-1}(S^{n-1})$.
  • Step 3: Since $H_{n-1}(B^n) \approx 0$ and $H_{n-1}(S^{n-1}) \approx \mathbb Z$, one obtains a retract $0 \to \mathbb Z$. This is a contradiction.

Step 2 is an example of a very useful principle of category theory: every functor takes retracts of the domain category to retracts of the range category.

Lee Mosher
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