Let $f \in L_1([0, 1])$ and $A_n \subset [0, 1]$ be measurable such that $\lambda(A_n) \to 0$ where $\lambda$ is the Lebesgue measure.
Can we prove that $\int_{A_n} f \mathrm d \lambda \to 0$ as $n \to +\infty$? If not, is it true if we impose more that $A_{n} \supset A_{n+1}$?
My attempt: If $A_{n} \supset A_{n+1}$ then $$ a_n :=\int_{A_n} |f| \mathrm d \lambda $$ decreases as $n \to \infty$. However, I could not prove that $a_n \to 0$.