I'm trying to convince myself how one can hypothesize that
$$ \left \lceil \frac{a}{b} \right \rceil \leq \frac{a+b-1}{b}$$ or alternatively that $$ \left \lceil \frac{a}{b} \right \rceil -\frac{a}{b}\leq 1-\frac{1}{b}. $$
My best answer is to roll into the proof, but I would not try to prove it because I'm not sure I would hypothesize the claim. (I probably will see that it is not tight, and then try to generate a better claim). Last but not least, it seems to me that equality occurs whenever $a+b+1$ is a multiply of $b$. Can you articulate what this condition means?
Proof. The proof splits into two cases:
- $\left \lceil \frac{a}{b} \right \rceil =\frac{a}{b}$, then trivially the difference is zero and the claim follows.
- $\left \lceil \frac{a}{b} \right \rceil >\frac{a}{b}$. Then, $\frac{a}{b} > \left \lceil \frac{a}{b} \right \rceil - 1$ multplying by $b$ yields: $ a>\left \lceil \frac{a}{b} \right \rceil b-b$, substract $a$ to obtain $\left \lceil \frac{a}{b} \right \rceil b-b-a < 0$, and using the fact that the rhs must be an integer to deduce $\left \lceil \frac{a}{b} \right \rceil b-b-a \leq 1$. Finally devide everything by $b$ and get $$\left \lceil \frac{a}{b} \right \rceil-\frac{a}{b} \leq 1 - \frac{1}{b}.$$ Q.E.D.