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I am reading over the proof of Lemma 10.32 (Local Frame Criterion for Subbundles) in Lee's Introduction to Smooth Manifolds.

The lemma says

Let $\pi: E \rightarrow M$ be a smooth vector bundle and suppose that for each $p\in M$ we are given an M-dimensional linear subspace $D_p \subseteq E_p$. Then $D = \cup_{p \in M} D_p \subseteq E$ is a smooth subbundle of $E$ iff each point of $M$ has a neighborhood $U$ on which there exist smooth local sections $\sigma_1, \cdots, \sigma_m: U \rightarrow E$ with the property that $\sigma_1(q), \cdots, \sigma_m(q)$ form a basis for $D_q$ at each $q \in U$.

Overall I understand the proof of this lemma, besides the part where we need to show that $D$ is an embedded submanifold with or without boundary of $E$. Professor Lee's proof says that

it suffices to show that each $p \in M$ has a neighborhood $U$ such that $D \cap \pi^{-1}(U)$ is an embedded submanifold (possibly with boundary) in $\pi^{-1}(U) \in E$.

It is not very obvious to me why it is sufficient by showing this. May someone explain the logic to me?

Edit: Here's my attempt to reason it: By Theorem 5.8, if $D ∩ \pi^{-1}(U)$ is an embedded submanifold in $\pi^{-1}(U)$, it satisfies the local k-slice condition. Now because $D$ is a union of $D ∩ \pi^{-1}(U)$ over different neighborhoods of $p \in M$, it satisfies the local k-slice condition as well, and hence again by Theorem 5.8, $D$ is an embedded submanifold.

Please let me know if anything is wrong and how it can be corrected.

Thank you very much.

Here's a screenshot of the Lemma and its (partial) proof: enter image description here

mlcv2022
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  • My claim that being a topological embedding is a local property was wrong, my apologies. – subrosar Jun 27 '22 at 06:18
  • Fixed my proof. I realized it is important that the sets $\pi^{-1}(U)$ are open in $E$, not just that $\pi^{-1}(U)\cap D$ is open in $D$, which would be sufficient if topological embedding was a local property. – subrosar Jun 27 '22 at 17:59
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    Your proof looks good and is a lot simpler actually. – subrosar Jun 29 '22 at 00:52
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    Thanks for following up and looking into my proof! – mlcv2022 Jun 30 '22 at 04:05
  • @mlcv2022 I think you'll have to modify the proof slightly in case $\pi^{-1}(U)$ has a non-empty boundary (by considering an embedding into it's double). – Karthik Kannan Oct 25 '24 at 00:30

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Suppose that there is an open cover $\{U_i\}$ of $E$ such that $D\cap U_i\hookrightarrow E$ is a smooth embedding and $D\cap U_i$ is open in $D$. I claim that $D\hookrightarrow E$ must be a smooth embedding.

Because $D\cap U_i$ is open in $D$, it follows that $D\hookrightarrow E$ is locally an immersion, so it must be an immersion globally. It is left to show that the inclusion is also a topological embedding.

It suffices to show that there is an open cover $\{V_i\}$ on $D$ which also forms an open cover on $D\subseteq E$ (subspace topology) on which the inclusion is a topological embedding. We were given that the inclusion is a topological embedding on sets of the open cover $\{D\cap U_i\}$. Since each $U_i$ is open in $E$, each $D\cap U_i$ is open in $D$ with the subspace topology induced by $E$.

subrosar
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  • Thanks, I understand the second part. I suppose the first part is from the local $k$-slice condition? (More specifically because $D∩\pi^{−1}(U)$ is an embedded submanifold of $E$, the local $k$-slice condition is satisfied in each of these submanifolds, and since $D$ is the union of them, the local $k$-slice condition is satisfied for $D$ as well?) – mlcv2022 Jun 26 '22 at 08:21
  • @mlcv2022 P.S. We know that $D\cap \pi^{-1}(U)$ is open in $D$ because $\pi:D\to M$ is continuous. – subrosar Jun 27 '22 at 18:01
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    @subrosar Don't you have to prove that $D$ is a smooth manifold with or without boundary first? That's not a given in this direction of the Lemma. – Jeff Rubin Jun 18 '23 at 02:11
  • @JeffRubin You make a good point. Lee proves that the $D$ can locally be given a smooth structure making it into an embedded submanifold. One would need to check (not hard I think) that the smooth structures he imposes on each $D\cap \pi^{-1}(U)$ are compatible. But I realized thanks to mlcv2022 that it's much easier to understand this whole thing from the perspective of the local $k$-slice criterion, because then we don't have to worry about topological or smooth structures on $D$ but only how $D$ fits into $E$ as a subset. – subrosar Jun 19 '23 at 01:50
  • @JeffRubin I also think that's closer to what Lee had in mind. – subrosar Jun 19 '23 at 01:50
  • @subrosar The local $k$-slice condition can’t be used when $E$ has nonempty boundary. I think that the proof needs to be reordered somewhat. First, ignore the highlighted statement (it will be used at the end). Then continue with the proof in the text up to the point where $\Psi$ is defined. It is not yet a smooth local trivialization. Then try to use the Vector Bundle Chart Lemma (Lemma 10.6) (along with Lemma 10.5 applied to E) to get both the smooth structure for $D$ and the vector bundle structure for $D$ at the same time. Then bring in the highlighted sentence to get the submanifold part. – Jeff Rubin Jun 19 '23 at 13:37
  • I think you are you just supossed to use Theorem 5.51 of Lee's. It allows you to consider the local slice condition for manifolds with boundary. Am I wrong? – RyeCatcher Apr 05 '25 at 20:17
  • @RyeCatcher, the problem is that Theorem 5.51 is only valid when $M$ is without boundary. I have discussed a way around this here. – Karthik Kannan Jun 09 '25 at 06:30
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Unfortunately, Theorem 5.8 only works for smooth manifolds without boundary. But here $E$ probably has boundary. A better theorem is Theorem 5.51,but it also requires that $M$ is a smooth manifold without boundary there.

Ray
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This question has been a while but I'm leaving this answer in case anyone else is wondering about this as well. I believe the statement in the text is misleading, or at least unclear. We actually need to use the Vector bundle chart lemma in the book. So we are given $$\Phi_\alpha : \pi^{-1}(U_\alpha)\to U_\alpha \times \mathbb{R}^k : \Phi_\alpha(s^1 \sigma_1(q)+\cdots +s^k \sigma_k(q))=(q,(s^1,\dots, s^k)).$$

And using this by restricting the last $k-m$ coordinates we get the smooth local trivialization candidate for $D$ given by $$\Psi_\alpha: D \cap \pi^{-1}(U_\alpha)=\pi_D^{-1}(U_\alpha) \to U \times \mathbb{R}^m: \Psi_\alpha(s^1 \sigma_1(q)+\cdots +s^m \sigma_m(q))=(q,(s^1,\dots, s^m)).$$

From $\Phi_\alpha$ we do get, as Lee writes, $D\cap \pi^{-1}(U_\alpha)$ as an embedded submanifold of $\pi^{-1}(U_\alpha)$, and from this we get that the map $\Psi_\alpha$ below is a diffeomorphism. But we do not yet have a smooth structure on $D$ or even a topology. So we need to find it using these maps in the Vector Bundle Chart Lemma then naturally $D$ will be a subspace of $E$.

For the Vector Bundle Chart Lemma, the first two conditions are easy. We are already given the cover $\{U_\alpha\}_{\alpha \in A}$ of $M$. And the maps $\Psi_\alpha: \pi^{-1}_D (U_\alpha)\to U_\alpha \times \mathbb{R}^m$ constructed above are bijective whose restriction to each $D_p$ is a vector space isomorphism from $D_p$ to $p \times R^m$. Note that all of this follows from its parent map $\Phi_\alpha$.

So we just need to check the third condition. For each $\alpha,\beta \in A$ with $U_\alpha \cap U_\beta \neq \emptyset$, a smooth map $\tau:U_\alpha \cap U_\beta \to GL(k,R)$ such that the map $\Phi_\alpha \circ \Phi_\beta^{-1}$ from $(U_\alpha \cap U_\beta) \times R^k$ to itself has the form $$\Phi_{\alpha} \circ \Phi_\beta^{-1}(p,v)=(p,\tau(p)v).$$

This is what we get from the vector bundle property of $E$, and note that by the uniqueness of the theorem this holds. Now we just obtain the transition map for $D$ from the transition map for $E$. This is obtained simply by taking the first $m \times m$ submatrix of $\tau$. It is still invertible, and smooth since it is just a composition of $\tau$ with the projection onto the first $m\times m$ coordinates.

Moreover, it satisfies the desired property because, note that the maps $\Phi_\alpha$ takes $D \cap \pi^{-1}(U_\alpha)$ to the subset $\{(q,(s^1,\dots, s^m,0,\dots,0))\} \subset U \times R^k$ which is basically $U\times R^m \times \{0\}^{k-m} \approx U \times R^m$. And all these maps are bijective, so when we are actually considering the transition maps inside $\pi^{-1}(U_\alpha \cap U_\beta) \cap D$, we are limiting ourselves to the vector space where the last $k-m$ components are $0$. Also by bijectivity, the range should have the last $k-m$ components $0$. That means we are multiplying a matrix $A$ by a vector $v$ of the form $v=(v^1,\dots,v^k,0,\dots,0)$ and expecting a response also of the form $w=(w^1,\dots,w^k,0,\dots,0)$. So the result is unaffected by removing the last $k-m$ rows and columns of $\tau(p)$. This is how we define $\tau_{\alpha,\beta}(p)$. The point is that $\Phi_\alpha \circ \Phi_\beta^{-1}$ and $\Psi_\alpha \circ \Psi_\beta^{-1}$ must agree on $(U_\alpha \cap U_\beta) \times R^m$ and this is achieved by setting $\tau_{\alpha,\beta}$, the transition maps for $\Psi_\alpha$ and $\Psi_\beta$ as above. And as mentioned above it is smooth because it is just a composition with a projection map.

Therefore, we have a unique topology and smooth structure making $D$ into a smooth manifold with or without boundary and a smooth rank-$m$ vector bundle over $M$ with $\pi_D$ as its projection and $\{(U_\alpha,\Psi_\alpha)\}$ as smooth local trivializations.

Next, note that from the manifold chart lemma, that the open sets constructed from this lemma are given by $((\phi_p \times Id_{R^k}) \circ \Phi_\alpha)^{-1}(\hat{V_p}\times W)$ for $E$ and $((\phi_p \times Id_{R^m}) \circ \Psi_\alpha)^{-1}(\hat{V_p} \times W)$ for $D$ where $(V_p,\phi_p)$ is a smooth chart for $M$ containing $p$ contained in $U_\alpha$ and $\phi_p(V_p)=\hat{V_p}$, and $W$ are open sets in $R^k$ and $R^m$.

If $D$ has the subspace topology then basis open sets of $D$ are given by the sets $((\phi_p \times Id_{R^k}) \circ\Phi_\alpha )^{-1}(\hat{V_p}\times W) \cap D$. Let's see how this corresponds to the basis in $D$ given from the chart lemma. Now let $W$ be an open set in $R^m$ (not $R^k$). Then the basis is really just $\Psi_\alpha^{-1}(V_p \times W)$. But the image of $\Psi_\alpha$ on $D \cap \pi^{-1}(U)=\pi_D^{-1}(U)$ was just obtained by deleting the last $k-m$ coordinates in $R^k$ from $\Phi_\alpha(\pi^{-1}(U))$ as the last $k-m$ coordinates are all $0$. As the maps are bijective, all that $\Phi_\alpha$ does by restricting the domain to $D$ is fixing the last $k-m$ coordinates to $0$. This means that if $\Phi_\alpha$ maps a set to $V_p \times (W \times R^{k-m})$ then restricting the set to $D$, $\Phi_\alpha$ maps this restricted set to $V_p \times (W \times \{0\}^{k-m})$. Thus by bijectivity, this must be equal to $\Psi_\alpha^{-1}(V_p \times W)$. And hence, $D$ has the subspace topology.

Hence we have shown that $D$ constructed by the Vector Bundle Lemma using $\Psi_\alpha$ as smooth local trivializations has the subspace topology of $E$.

Finally we have to show that the inclusion map $i:D \to E$ is a smooth injective immersion. This is the part that follows from $D \cap \pi^{-1}(U)$ is embedded in $\pi^{-1}(U)$, I believe. So $\pi^{-1}(U)$ is embedded in $E$, as an open subset of $E$, hence $D \cap \pi^{-1}(U)$ is embedded in $E$. And we have $\pi_D: D \to M$ smooth (continuous) so $\pi_D^{-1}(U)= \pi^{-1}(U)\cap D$ is open in $D$. So at every point of $D$ we have a neighborhood in which the inclusion map $i$ is an embedding to $E$, thus $i$ is a smooth immersion, clearly injective. As it has the subspace topology, it is a topological embedding. Hence $D$ is embedded in $E$.

  • I think we can avoid using the Vector Bundle Chart Lemma. Since $\Phi: \pi^{-1}(U)\rightarrow U\times\mathbb{R}^{k}$ is a diffeomorphism and $U\times(\mathbb{R}^{m}\times{0}^{k-m})$ is embedded in $U\times\mathbb{R}^{k}$, we can equip $D\cap \pi^{-1}(U)$ with a topology and smooth structure that it embeds it in $\pi^{-1}(U)$. – Karthik Kannan Oct 25 '24 at 00:37