I am trying to understand these two different ways of defining fractional Sobolev spaces. In particular, I want to determine embeddings or equality between the Besov spaces $B^{s}_{p,p}$ and the Slobodeckij spaces $W^{s,p}$. I have read somewhere that they should be equal, but I cannot find a proof in any of the classic texts. The Besov space is defined through the Littlewood-Paley operators as the completion of the righthand side
$$B^{s}_{p,p} = \left\{f \in \mathcal{S}(\mathbb{R}^d) \ : \ \left(\int_{\mathbb{R}^d} \sum_{j=0}^\infty 2^{jsp}|P_jf(x)|^p \ dx \right)^{1/p}<\infty\right\}.$$
While the Slobodeckij space is the completion of the righthand side of $$W^{s,p} = \left\{f \in \mathcal{S}(\mathbb{R}^d) \ : \ \left(\int \int \frac{|f(x+h)-f(x)|^p}{|h|^{d+sp}}\ dh \ dx\right)^{1/p} <\infty\right\}.$$
So, I have tried to prove that these two spaces are equal. I have managed to show that
$$\|f\|_{B^s_{p,p}} \lesssim \|f\|_{W^{r,q}}$$ where $s \le r$ and $p \le q$, with at least one of them being strict. To do this, let $\varphi_j = \check{\psi_j}$ where $\psi_j$ is the Fourier multiplier for $P_j$. For $j \ge1$, $\psi_j$ is localized to the annulus $2^{j-1} <|\xi|<2^{j+1}$, so $\int \varphi_j = \hat{\varphi}_j(0) = \psi_j(0)=0.$
$$P_jf(x) = \int f(x-h) \varphi_j(h) \ dh = \int [f(x-h) - f(x)]\varphi_j(h) \ dh$$ $$\Rightarrow |P_jf(x)| \le \int \frac{|f(x-h) -f(x)|}{|h|^{s+d/p}} |\varphi(h)| |h|^{s+d/p} \ dh$$ $$\le \left\|\frac{f(x+ \cdot) - f(x)}{|\cdot|^{s+d/p}}\right\|_{L^p} \left(\int |\varphi_j(h)|^{p'} |h|^{p'(s + d/p)} \ dh\right)^{1/p'}.$$
We estimate that last integral through scaling to get the result I claimed. So, if it is true that $B^s_{p,p} = W^{s,p}$, this method is not quite enough; we need a sharper estimate.
Is the equality true? Do both embeddings hold? What kind of embedding can I get of the form $B_{q,q}^r \subset W^{s,p} $? When $p \neq 2$, I have difficulty controlling the difference quotient in the $W^{s,p}$ norm by the Littlewood-Paley projections.
I would also appreciate any references. I have looked in Triebel's books, in one of which it is claimed that the equivalence of norms is true. But this sends me on a quest through references, each one referring to another book and I cannot find the actual proof.