I have learnt some basic content of smooth manifolds from Tu's Introduction to Manifolds, in which a smooth 1-form on a smooth manifold $M$ is defined as a smooth section of the cotangent bundle $T^*M$, and similarly a smooth $k$-form is a smooth section of the alternating $k$-tensor bundles $\Lambda^k(T^*M)$.
Now I'm reading some content on Riemann Surface, via Kodaira's Complex Analysis, where he also mentions 1-form and 2-form in Riemann Surface. But 1-form and 2-form is just defined in a "informal" way like: $\phi \text{d}x + \psi \text{d} y$ and $\omega \text{d}x \wedge \text{dy}$. The 1-form(2-form, respectively) is said to be of class continous, $C^n$, smooth, ... if $\phi, \psi$, $\omega$ is continous, $C^n$, smooth, ...
My question is:
- Is a $C^k$ form (not smooth) just a $C^k$ section of $\Lambda^k(T^*M)$ ?
- In content of Riemann Surface, it does not explicitly mention the smooth structure of the space (altough it is a smooth manifold). Does the definition of forms implicitly imply that there has to be a smooth structure because $TM$ is a $n$-dimension vector space requiring a smooth structure?
Thanks!
Edit: Reading the comment in question: $C^{k}$-manifolds: how and why?. Maybe my confusion is the definition for the tangent space a $C^r$ manifold (Originally I thought it as the space of all derivations), I quoted the comment of Jim Belk here:
As a general comment, you shouldn't use the word "tangent space" to refer to the space of all derivations. Even in the $C^r$ context, the word "tangent space" means the (finite-dimensional) space of all tangent vectors. Books that restrict to the $^∞$ case sometimes define the tangent space using derivations, but that's not the primary definition. In particular, books that consider the $C^r$ case generally ignore derivations completely in favor of some other formalism.
With the tangent space as a finite dimensional vector space, I think maybe it's ok now. My confusion comes from that I think a differential form has to rely on a finite dimenional vector space.