1

This a follow-up to my previous question.

I suspected that the following identity, $\int_0^{\infty} e^{-ax^n} \, \text{d}x = \frac1{n} \cdot a^{-\frac1{n}} \Gamma{\left(\frac1{n}\right)} = a^{-\frac1{n}} \Gamma{\left(1+\frac1{n}\right)}$, implies that $$\int_0^{\infty} e^{-ix^n} \, \text{d}x = i^{-\frac1{n}} \Gamma{\left(1+\frac1{n}\right)} $$

If you substitute $a = i$. I’m not sure if such a substitution is “legal,” but I’m going forward with this anyway for now.

Knowing that $i^{-\frac1{n}} = \cos{\left(\frac{\pi}{2n}(1+4k)\right)} - i\sin {\left(\frac{\pi}{2n}(1+4k)\right)}$, where $k \in \mathbb{N},$ and $0 < k \leq n$, this implies that

$$\int_0^{\infty} e^{-ix^n} \, \text{d}x = \cos{\left(\frac{\pi}{2n}(1+4k)\right)} \Gamma{\left(1+\frac1{n}\right)} - i\sin {\left(\frac{\pi}{2n}(1+4k)\right)}\Gamma{\left(1+\frac1{n}\right)} $$

It would then follow that $$ \int_0^{\infty} \cos(x^n)\, \text{d}x = \cos{\left(\frac{\pi}{2n}(1+4k)\right)} \Gamma{\left(1+\frac1{n}\right)} \\ \int_0^{\infty} \sin(x^n)\, \text{d}x = \sin{\left(\frac{\pi}{2n}(1+4k)\right)} \Gamma{\left(1+\frac1{n}\right)} $$

Through some testing, I found that this equation holds true for $n = 2$, but not for all values of $k$. My computer does not have the processing power to test for higher values of $n$.

Do these integral expressions hold true for all $n$? If so, for what $k$ are they true? And is my method for deriving these expressions valid?

P.S.: For integer $n$, I would assume that we could use induction to prove that this expression is true for $n \geq 2$; but I’m not sure how I could make a proof like that work.

Mailbox
  • 941
  • @quanto is your trusted guide here – A rural reader May 09 '22 at 01:06
  • 2
    Those identities are true for all $n > 0$ with $k = 0$. I am not sure what method you used to compute those integral, but oscillatory integrals need to be treated very carefully in numerical computations. – Sangchul Lee May 09 '22 at 04:55

1 Answers1

0

The correct identity is $$\int_0^\infty\sin\left(x^a\right)\,dx=\Gamma\left(1+\frac 1a\right)\sin\left(\frac{\pi}{2a}\right)\quad\quad(a>1) $$ and similarly for the other integral. The condition $a>1$ is required for the convergence of the integral. If your formula should hold, then since the gamma function has no zeroes we must have $$\sin\left(\frac{\pi}{2n}\right)=\sin\left(\frac{\pi}{2n}(1+4k)\right) $$ which implies $\frac{\pi}{2n}(1+4k)=\frac{\pi}{2n}+2m\pi\Leftrightarrow k=mn$ or $\frac{\pi}{2n}(1+4k)=\pi-\frac{\pi}{2n}+2m\pi\Leftrightarrow k=\frac{(2m+1)n-1}{2}$ where $m\in\mathbb{Z}$. The second expression is an integer for odd $n$. For the integral of the cosine, the conditions on $k$ are $k=mn$ or $k=\frac{2mn-1}{2}$.

bjorn93
  • 6,847