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I read that to any irrational sequence we can assign at least one rational sequence which is asymptotic to it.
The fact that it is asymptotic I think implies that the rational sequence approximates the irrational one as much as we like.
But I am not clear how we find one such rational sequence?
E.g. if we have (just as an example) the expression $\sqrt{1 + \sqrt 2}$ a direct sequence to interpret it is:
$\sqrt{2.4}, \sqrt{2.41}, \sqrt{2.414}, ...$ and all the terms are irrationals.

But in general how do we choose/find the rational sequence to represent it instead which is asymptotic to the irrational one?
Would we pick just a rational approximation of each irrational term choosing up to an aribtrary number of digits after the decimal? E.g.
$1.549193338, 1.552417469 ...$?
These are the 9 first digits of $\sqrt{2.4}, \sqrt{2.41}$

Jim
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    You could always take the decimal expansion of a real number $x$ as a starting point. So for example the sequence $3$, $3.1$, $3.14$, $\ldots$ converges to $\pi$. – littleO Apr 04 '22 at 22:26
  • @littleO: Isn't this what I also do in my example? I was wondering if it is strictly correct – Jim Apr 04 '22 at 22:34
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    You could just use the decimal expansion of $\sqrt{1 + \sqrt 2}$ directly. $\sqrt{1 + \sqrt 2} = 1.5537739740\ldots$ is the limit of the sequence $1, 1.5, 1.55, 1.553, 1.5537, \ldots$. No need to involve the decimal digits of $\sqrt{2}$. – Jair Taylor Apr 04 '22 at 23:34
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    @JairTaylor The original problem talks about a sequence of irrationals which we want to approximate with a sequence of rationals. That's why the OP choose $\sqrt{2.4}, \sqrt{2.41},\sqrt{2.414}, \ldots$ – jjagmath Apr 05 '22 at 02:34
  • The OP has chosen as his irrational sequence one that has a limit. This blurs the distinction between the rational sequence being assymptotic to that sequence, and a rational sequence which converges to the same limit, for which continued fractions is an ideal construction. Does the original assertion also cover an irrational sequence that does not converge? They exist, as I can think of a trivial example, 1+root(2), 2+root(2)...n+root(2) – Neil_UK Apr 05 '22 at 07:39
  • @JairTaylor: by the way is $1, 1.5, 1.55, 1.553, 1.5537$ is it also a series of some sequence? https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/4420012/in-real-numbers-does-the-series-converging-to-them-have-a-generating-sequence – Jim Apr 05 '22 at 10:21
  • @Neil_UK: What is the difference between rational sequence being asymptotic to the irrational sequence vs rational sequence converges to the limit the irrational sequence represents? It seems to me the same thing? – Jim Apr 05 '22 at 10:25
  • They are the same thing – provided the irrational sequence actually has a limit. The first sentence says “any irrational sequence”, which includes sequences that do not have a limit. Even for such sequences, there are still asymptotic rational sequences, as demonstrated by the answers. – Brian Drake Apr 05 '22 at 10:35
  • @BrianDrake: ah I see. Thank you for pointing that out. I didn't realize that. So if the irrational sequence does not approximate an irrational number (i.e. have a limit) then we find the rational sequence that is asymptotic with continued fractions? – Jim Apr 05 '22 at 10:44
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    @Jim Your last comment has an error (not strictly relevant to the question): even if an irrational sequence converges (to use the proper term), it may not converge to an irrational number. For example, the irrational sequence $\pi / n$ converges to the rational number $0$. As for continued fractions, they are a fine way of approximating a single irrational number, but I am not sure how they are relevant to approximating an arbitrary irrational sequence. – Brian Drake Apr 05 '22 at 11:06
  • @BrianDrake: Besides $0$ is there any other rational number that an irrational sequence could converse? – Jim Apr 05 '22 at 11:28
  • Of course: ${1 + \frac{\pi}{n}}$ converges to $1$, and $1$ can be replaced by any other rational (or indeed irrational) number to create a sequence that converges to that number. – Brian Drake Apr 05 '22 at 11:31

6 Answers6

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If $(a_n)_{n\in\Bbb N}$ is a sequence of real numbers, then for each $n\in\Bbb N$, there is some rational number $q_n\in\left(a_n,a_n+\frac1n\right)$. So, $(q_n)_{n\in\Bbb N}$ is a sequence of rational numbers and $\lim_{n\to\infty}(a_n-q_n)=0$.

Mittens
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  • How does this relate to the irrational sequence I would want to represent? Both $(a_n)$ and $(q_n)$ are rational sequences – Jim Apr 04 '22 at 22:15
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    At which point did I write that $(a_n)_{n\in\Bbb N}$ is a rational sequence? – José Carlos Santos Apr 04 '22 at 22:16
  • I am sorry, I misunderstood it! When you say $q_n\in\left(a_n,a_n+\frac1n\right)$ how did we choose that? Couldn't it have been e.g. $q_n \in (a_n,a_n+\frac{1}{10^n})$ for instance? Or something else? – Jim Apr 04 '22 at 22:19
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    Sure it could. I have used the sequence $\left(\frac1n\right){n\in\Bbb N}$. You have suggested the sequence $\left(\frac1{10^n}\right){n\in\Bbb N}$. Both will work. What matters is that it is a sequence that converges to $0$, so that $\lim_{n\to\infty(a_n-q_n)=0$. – José Carlos Santos Apr 04 '22 at 22:22
  • So there is besides diminishing difference between the 2 sequences there is no other criteria right? This means then that my example in the post is wrong because I am using fixed $9$ decimal digits per term hence they can not converge to $0$? – Jim Apr 04 '22 at 22:36
  • I don't see the need for any other condition. – José Carlos Santos Apr 04 '22 at 22:37
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    If you just fix the first $9$ decimals, then you can't be sure that the sequence of rationals that you get is asymptotic to the original sequence. – José Carlos Santos Apr 04 '22 at 22:47
  • "there is some rational number $q_n\in\left(a_n,a_n+\frac1n\right)$" this recipe gives the interval and assumes the rational exists but is there an algorithmic way to find the actual rational (first one I guess?) in the interval? – Jim Apr 04 '22 at 22:49
  • @OliverDiaz: What computer methods are these? – Jim Apr 05 '22 at 08:44
  • Of the answers currently visible, this answer was the first. So, even though it does not actually answer the main question, perhaps it was a good answer at the time. Still, the main question is not particularly difficult to answer, and no attempt was made since then. I do not think this is worth an upvote. – Brian Drake Apr 05 '22 at 11:19
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Your idea of using the decimal expansion is good and can be explicitly written as this $$a_n = \frac{1}{10^n}\left\lfloor10^n\ x_n\right\rfloor$$

It readily follows from the the properties of the floor function that $$x_n-\frac{1}{10^n}< a_n \le x_n$$ which proves that $a_n$ is asymptotic to $x_n$.

Notice that the sequence $10^n$ could be changed by any other sequence of integers tending to infinity. May be the simplest would be $$a_n = \frac{1}{n}\left\lfloor n\ x_n\right\rfloor$$

jjagmath
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    +1 This seems like the most elegant answer possible. However, we are not limited to sequences of integers: $10^n$ could be replaced by any other sequence of real numbers tending to infinity. – Brian Drake Apr 05 '22 at 10:28
  • Is $x_n$ the term of the irrational sequence? Also I thought the floor function is used only in division. I am confused with having it as part of multiplication $\lfloor10^n\ x_n\rfloor$ – Jim Apr 05 '22 at 10:33
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    Yes $(x_n)$ is the irrational sequence. And, do you know what the floor function is? It's defined for all real numbers. – jjagmath Apr 05 '22 at 10:42
  • You are right! My bad, stupid question about the floor! – Jim Apr 05 '22 at 11:03
  • So if I understand correctly it is the floor that makes it the nearest rational and we divide by $10$ to get rid of the multiplication right? Hence it is $\le x_n$ due to using floor but why is it $a_n \gt x_n - \frac{1}{{10}^n}$? It is not obvious to me. – Jim Apr 05 '22 at 11:07
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    Obviously, I should have said that $10^n$ could be replaced by any other sequence of rational numbers, so that $a_n$ would also be rational. – Brian Drake Apr 05 '22 at 11:21
  • @Jim It sounds like you do not have a good understanding of the floor function. See my answer. – Brian Drake Apr 05 '22 at 11:53
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Consider the irrational sequence

$$\langle a_n \rangle ~: a_n = ~n \times \pi, ~n \in \Bbb{Z^+}.$$

In a manner very similar to that suggested in the original posting,
for $~n \in \Bbb{Z^+},~$
define the function $f(n)$ to be $\pi$ accurate to $(10)^n$ decimal places,
where the decimal expression of $\pi$ is truncated (rather than rounded)
after the $[(10)^n]$-th decimal place.

Now define

$$\langle b_n\rangle ~: ~b_n = n \times f(n), ~n \in \Bbb{Z^+}.$$

Then $~\displaystyle \langle b_n \rangle$ is a rational sequence that is asymptotic to the irrational sequence $~\displaystyle \langle a_n\rangle.$


Edit
Now, vary the above example. Instead of the irrational sequence $~\displaystyle \langle a_n \rangle~$ defined above, let $~\displaystyle \langle a_n \rangle~$ be any sequence of numbers, where each element of the sequence is irrational.

Then, in a manner very similar to the example at the start of my answer, you can construct the corresponding rational sequence $~\displaystyle \langle b_n \rangle~$, where $b_n$ represents the first $(10)^n$ decimal places (with truncation) of the irrational number $a_n$.

Then, as before, you will have that $~\displaystyle \langle b_n \rangle$ is a rational sequence that is asymptotic to the irrational sequence $~\displaystyle \langle a_n\rangle.$

user2661923
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  • is the a difference between truncating and rounding down? 2) "Instead of the irrational sequence $~\displaystyle \langle a_n \rangle~$ defined above, let $~\displaystyle \langle a_n \rangle~$ be any sequence of numbers, where each element of the sequence is irrational" I don't understand this statement. Isn't saying a sequence ${a}$ is irrational exactly the same thing as saying ${a}$ is a sequence where each element is irrational?
  • – Jim Apr 05 '22 at 20:59
  • @Jim responding to your questions 1 at a time: [1] I agree that technically, you could have the terms rounded rather than truncated. I chose truncation only because it seemed easier for me to visualize the corresponding error. That is, if $a_n$ (irrational) is greater than $b_n$ (rational) and $a_n - b_n < 10^{-n}$ then it becomes clearer, in my mind that $\langle b_n\rangle$ is asymptotic to $\langle a_n\rangle.$ So, I opted for a strategy that permitted me a clearer vision. ...see next comment – user2661923 Apr 05 '22 at 22:50
  • @Jim [2] I have a great deal of ignorance in the area of managing sequences. I chose (for example) the syntax each term is irrational only to ensure that there was no ambiguity. For all that I know, the alternative syntax that $\langle a_n\rangle$ is an irrational sequence might actually mean the same thing. I am simply ignorant, in this area. – user2661923 Apr 05 '22 at 22:53