Let $T:\mathfrak{D}(T)\subseteq X\rightarrow X$ be a linear operator where $X$ is a Banach space. We define the resolvent set of $T$, denoted $Res(T)$ to be the set consisting of all $\lambda \in \mathbb{C}$ such that $T-\lambda I$ is bijective.
Suppose $\lambda \in Res(T)$ , $T$ is closed. Then, $(T-\lambda I)^{-1} : X\rightarrow \mathfrak{D}(T)$ is closed. By why does this imply that $(T-\lambda I)^{-1}$ is bounded?
Is $\mathfrak{D}(T)$ closed in this case? If so, then we can just invoke the Closed Graph Theorem. For then, $\mathfrak{D}(T)$ would be Banach, too.
I suppose to make sense of the above, one regards $(T-\lambda I)^{-1}$ as an operator $X\rightarrow X$. In such a case, it suffices to note the following:
If $T:X\rightarrow Y'$ is a closed linear map and $Y'$ is a subspace of $Y$ then $T:X\rightarrow Y$ is closed too?