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Note: This post considers propositional logic, with $\to$, $\bot$ as the base connectives, $\neg \phi$ is an abbreviation for $\phi\to \bot$.
Consider a usual Hilbert-style proof system(with modus-ponens as the sole inference rule) with the following axioms,

  • $\phi \to \left( \psi \to \phi \right)$
  • $\neg \phi \to(\phi\to \psi)$
  • $\neg\neg \phi\to \phi$

The first axiom is a "weakening" axiom, the second is an "explosion" axiom and the third is usual double-negation.
My question(which comes out of idle curiosity) is: Is this proof system complete, or in the other words does $\Gamma \vdash \phi \iff \Gamma\models \phi$?(Here "$\Gamma \vdash \phi$" means that there is a Hilbert-style proof of $\phi$, from the set of assumptions $\Gamma$). The $\implies$ direction is basically trivial, but does the other direction hold? (I’m not very sure, and don’t even know how to prove something like the deduction theorem or even $\vdash \phi\to\phi$)

Vivaan Daga
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    I can provide a partial answer for now... I am familiar with a completeness proof for a system in which your second axiom is replaced by $(\phi \rightarrow (\psi \rightarrow \theta)) \rightarrow ((\phi \rightarrow \psi) \rightarrow (\phi \rightarrow \theta))$. I also know that $\neg \phi \rightarrow (\phi \rightarrow \psi)$ can be derived in this system. Hence the partial answer to your question - if $(\phi \rightarrow (\psi \rightarrow \theta)) \rightarrow ((\phi \rightarrow \psi) \rightarrow (\phi \rightarrow \theta))$ can be derived from your three axioms, then the system is complete. – Menander I Mar 31 '22 at 17:41
  • Usually in classical logic axioms are the most general tautologies for their bracket type. ¬¬ϕ→ϕ is a bit odd as an axiom, since it's an instance of (¬(ϕ→ψ)→ϕ). – Doug Spoonwood Mar 31 '22 at 19:23
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    @MenanderI ((ϕ→(ψ→θ))→((ϕ→ψ)→(ϕ→θ)) is not derivable in this system according to a quick check using Mace4. – Doug Spoonwood Mar 31 '22 at 21:04
  • @DougSpoonwood Thanks for checking ... it didn't look complete to me as well ... though with the $\neg$ being defined over $\to$ and $\bot$ I wasn't sure ... did you take that into account? – Bram28 Mar 31 '22 at 22:17
  • @Bram28 Unless I'm misremembering and made a mistake, I used the definition-free version. Instead of using P(C(N(x),C(x,y))) I used P(C(C(x,0),C(x,y))), and P(C(C(C(x,0),0),x)) instead of P(C(N(N(x)),x)). It would be derivable in the definiton-free version if it were derivable. – Doug Spoonwood Apr 01 '22 at 07:36
  • @Bram28 I guess I should add that I think, though I'm mostly guessing, that '0' just gets interpreted as a constant by Mace4 in the same way as any other constant. But, I think that strictly speaking propositional calculus in the course of formal proofs assigns no more meaning to '0' or '$\bot$;' than that they are a constant. Re-running it, the model that Mace4 gives me could get described as: C(0,0) = 2, C(0, 1) = 1, C(0, 2) = 2, C(1, 0) = 1, C(1, 1)=2, C(1, 2) = 2, C(2, 0) = 0, C(2, 1) = 1, C(2, 2) = 2. – Doug Spoonwood Apr 01 '22 at 07:56
  • Also, I ran this through Prover9, and it was quickly "exhausted". Looking at the output, almost all of the theorems derived had the first axiom: P(C(x,C(y,x))). in Prover9/Mace4 format, as the first premise. – Doug Spoonwood Apr 01 '22 at 08:06
  • @DougSpoonwood How does such a program work? – Vivaan Daga Apr 09 '22 at 13:30
  • @VoiletFlame I think it checks all models of increasing domain size. The details of it doing that, I don't know at all. – Doug Spoonwood Apr 10 '22 at 15:12

1 Answers1

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This is not complete.

To show it is not complete, let us consider an alternative semantics for the operators involved. That is, suppose that all statements involved evaluate to either $0$, $1$, or $2$. That is, suppose all atomic variables take the value of either $0$, $1$, or $2$, suppose that $\bot$ is a constant that denotes $1$, and suppose that the $\to$ operator works as follows:

\begin{array}{cc|c} P&Q&P\to Q\\ \hline 0&0&0\\ 0&1&1\\ 0&2&2\\ 1&0&0\\ 1&1&0\\ 1&2&0\\ 2&0&0\\ 2&1&2\\ 2&2&0\\ \end{array}

With that, we can also figure out how $\neg$ works:

\begin{array}{c|ccc} P&P & \to & \bot\\ \hline 0&0&1&1\\ 1&1&0&1\\ 2&2&2&1\\ \end{array}

OK, so now let's evaluate the three axioms you have:

\begin{array}{c|ccc} P&\neg & \neg P &\to &P\\ \hline 0&0&1&0&0\\ 1&1&0&0&1\\ 2&2&2&0&1\\ \end{array}

\begin{array}{cc|ccc|cc} P&Q&\neg P & \to & (P \to Q)&P & \to & (Q \to P)\\ \hline 0&0&1&0&0&0&0&0\\ 0&1&1&0&1&0&0&0\\ 0&2&1&0&2&0&0&0\\ 1&0&0&0&0&1&0&1\\ 1&1&0&0&0&1&0&0\\ 1&2&0&0&0&1&0&2\\ 2&0&2&0&0&2&0&2\\ 2&1&2&0&2&2&0&0\\ 2&2&2&0&0&2&0&0\\ \end{array}

So notice that all of your axioms have the property that they will always evaluate to $0$, no matter what. As such, we can call them '$0$-tautologies'

Also note that if you look at the definition of the $\to$ operator, you will find that whenever $P \to Q$ has the value of $0$, and $P$ has the value of $0$, $Q$ will have to have the value of $0$ as well. This means that if you have any two $0$-tautologies, then the only kind of statement that you can infer from that using Modus Ponens is another $0$-tautology.

Finally, consider the statement $(P \to \neg P) \to \neg P$. This is not a $0$-tautology:

\begin{array}{c|ccccc} P&(P & \to & \neg P) & \to & \neg P\\ \hline 0&0&1&1&0&1\\ 1&1&0&0&0&0\\ 2&2&0&2&\color{red}{2}&2\\ \end{array}

So, this means that $(P \to \neg P) \to \neg P$ cannot be inferred from your axioms and Modus Ponens. But since $(P \to \neg P) \to \neg P$ is a tautology in normal propositional logic, that means your system is not complete.

Bram28
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  • Interesting thanks , I haven’t read this in detail yet, but what goes wrong in trying the usual proof of completeness by showing every maximally consistent set has a model? – Vivaan Daga Mar 31 '22 at 18:15
  • @VoiletFlame Hmm, I'd have to think about that myself a bit more, but my guess is that you no longer have the basic Lemma (of such a proof) that you can derive $\phi \to \psi$ if and only if you can derive $\neg \phi$ or you can derive $\psi$. With your first two axioms you have the 'if' part of this, so the 'only if' part must be false. – Bram28 Mar 31 '22 at 18:27
  • @VoiletFlame "The usual proof of completeness" uses a deduction metatheorem somewhere, correct? Well, this system doesn't have a deduction metatheorem. Specifically, that $\rightarrow$ distributes over itself is not provable in this system as I mentioned in my comment to MeanderI, while the deduction metatheorem implies that implication distributes over itself as provable, even when it's not an axiom. – Doug Spoonwood Mar 31 '22 at 21:20
  • @Bram28 I don't understand the very end of your answer: how are we using the fact that your example formula is a tautology in normal propositional logic to account for the other half of the proof? My expectation was that we need also to prove that adding this formula to the axioms does not lead to a contradiction (or alternatively that it does not allow us to prove every formula). – Cristian Gratie Mar 31 '22 at 22:23
  • @CristianGratie The inability to derive some statement $\phi$ from a set of others can be demonstrated in different ways. You are referring to the method of adding the negation of $\phi$ to $\Gamma$ and showing that there is a model for the resulting set. However, I use a different method completely, showing that a certain kind of statement can not be inferred from others: starting with any instances of the OP’s axioms, which are all $0$-tautologies, and using MP, which can only infer other $0$-tautologies from $0$-tautologies, I cannot end up with a statement that is not a $0&-tautology. – Bram28 Apr 01 '22 at 00:16
  • @Bram28 You are right, I had a slightly different completeness in mind, but without knowing that completeness comes in slightly different flavors. I was thinking about syntactical completeness formulated without reference to a model or negation, described as follows on Wikipedia: "a formal system is syntactically complete if and only if no unprovable sentence can be added to it without introducing an inconsistency". – Cristian Gratie Apr 01 '22 at 07:19
  • @Bram28 Actually every maximally insistent set does have a model. The problem is in showing that, that implies completeness. I’ll accept this answer but one last question: if we accept the axiom Menander I presents in the question, how to prove explosion? – Vivaan Daga Apr 01 '22 at 17:45
  • @VoiletFlame If you use that axiom Menander mentioned you don;t get explosion, since you have a perfectly consistent set of statements, since they are all logical truths using the standard semantics. – Bram28 Apr 01 '22 at 18:33
  • I mean how to prove $\neg \phi \to (\phi \to \psi)$ in that system.(Where the second axiom is replaced by meander) – Vivaan Daga Apr 01 '22 at 18:47
  • If you have $\neg \phi$, which is really $\phi\to \bot$, and you have $\phi$, then by MP you get $\bot$. Use axiom 1 to get $\bot \to ((\psi \to \bot) \to \bot)$, so by MP you now have $(\psi \to \bot) \to \bot$, i.e. $\neg \neg \psi$. Using axiom 3 you can then get $\psi$. Ok, so we now know that $\neg \phi, \phi \vdash \psi$. But axioms 1 and 2 are sufficient to prove the Deduction Theorem. So applying that twice, we get $\neg \phi \to (\phi \to \psi)$ – Bram28 Apr 02 '22 at 03:29
  • Sorry I forgot to accept your answer! I have one more question Doug Spoonwood mentioned a program that can answer this question, how does that work? – Vivaan Daga Apr 09 '22 at 16:02
  • @VoiletFlame I actually don;t know the program ... he said it was called Mace4 ... maybe you can find it online. But the basic idea is probably just what I did: find some kind of weird semantics to redefine the operators as working on some weird domain, and see if you can find something along the lines of those "0-tautologies". That search is largely trial and error, but with a computer that shouldn't be too hard (unless, of course the statement is not independent). I also know that sometimes you need to create a domain with more than 3 objects in order to make it all work ... – Bram28 Apr 10 '22 at 01:17